Name: Shivajee Kumar Roll No: 240423 Course: MTH403 Real Analysis II Assignment: HW-3
Problem 2.28
Question
Find the partial derivatives of the following functions using the Multivariable Chain Rule. Let \(D_1f, D_2f, D_3f\) denote the partial derivatives of \(f\) with respect to its first, second, and third arguments.
(a) \(F(x,y) = f(g(x)k(y), g(x) + h(y))\)
Solution (a)
Let the intermediate variables be \(u(x,y) = g(x)k(y)\) and \(v(x,y) = g(x) + h(y)\). Thus, \(F(x,y) = f(u, v)\).
By the Chain Rule, the partial derivative with respect to \(x\) is:
\[ \frac{\partial F}{\partial x} = D_1f \cdot \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} + D_2f \cdot \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \]
In every part, evaluate \(D_if\) at the complete inner tuple. The formula \(F_x=\sum_iD_if(\text{inner tuple})\,\partial_x(\text{inner}_i)\) prevents missing a branch.
(a) Set \(u=g(x)k(y)\), \(v=g(x)+h(y)\). Then \(F_x=D_1f(u,v)g'(x)k(y)+D_2f(u,v)g'(x)\), and \(F_y=D_1f(u,v)g(x)k'(y)+D_2f(u,v)h'(y)\).
(b) At \((u,v)=(g(x+y),h(y+z))\), the x-column is \(D_1f\,g'(x+y)\); the y-column has both terms \(D_1f\,g'(x+y)+D_2f\,h'(y+z)\); the z-column is \(D_2f\,h'(y+z)\).
(c) Work on \(x,y,z>0\) so powers with variable exponents are differentiable. For \((u,v,w)=(x^y,y^z,z^x)\), the x-column is \(D_1f\,yx^{y-1}+D_3f\,z^x\log z\); the y-column is \(D_1f\,x^y\log x+D_2f\,zy^{z-1}\); the z-column is \(D_2f\,y^z\log y+D_3f\,xz^{x-1}\).
(d) At \((x,g(x),h(x,y))\), \(F_x=D_1f+D_2f\,g'(x)+D_3f\,h_x\), whereas \(F_y=D_3f\,h_y\); the first two inner inputs have no y-dependence.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Har part mein \(D_if\) ko poore inner tuple par evaluate karo. Rule \(F_x=\sum_iD_if(\text{inner tuple})\,\partial_x(\text{inner}_i)\) se koi branch miss nahi hoti.
(b) Inner tuple \((g(x+y),h(y+z))\) hai. x-derivative mein sirf first branch, z-derivative mein sirf second branch, aur y-derivative mein dono: \(D_1f\,g'(x+y)+D_2f\,h'(y+z)\).
(c) Variable powers ke liye \(x,y,z>0\) lo. \(x^y=e^{y\log x}\), \(y^z=e^{z\log y}\), \(z^x=e^{x\log z}\). x-column mein first aur third branch, y-column mein first aur second, z-column mein second aur third branch aati hai. Inki derivatives respectively \(yx^{y-1},z^x\log z\); \(x^y\log x,zy^{z-1}\); aur \(y^z\log y,xz^{x-1}\) hain.
(d) Inner tuple \((x,g(x),h(x,y))\). x-derivative \(D_1f+D_2f g'+D_3f h_x\); y-derivative sirf \(D_3f h_y\), kyunki pehle do inputs y par depend nahi karte.
Problem 2.29
Question
Let \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}\). For \(x \in \mathbf{R}^n\), the limit \(\lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a + tx) - f(a)}{t}\), if it exists, is denoted \(D_x f(a)\), and called the directional derivative of \(f\) at \(a\), in the direction \(x\). Show properties (a), (b), and (c).
Solution (a): Show \(D_{e_i} f(a) = D_i f(a)\)
By definition for standard basis vector \(e_i\):
\[ D_{e_i} f(a) = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a + t e_i) - f(a)}{t} \]
If \(c = 0\), both sides are \(0\). If \(c \neq 0\), let \(u = hc\). As \(h \to 0\), \(u \to 0\). Replacing \(h\) with \(u/c\):
\[ \lim_{u \to 0} \frac{f(a + ux) - f(a)}{u/c} = c \left[ \lim_{u \to 0} \frac{f(a + ux) - f(a)}{u} \right] = c D_x f(a) \] ∎
Solution (c): Show \(D_x f(a) = Df(a)(x)\) and \(D_{x+y} f(a) = D_x f(a) + D_y f(a)\)
By definition of differentiability at \(a\):
\[ \lim_{v \to 0} \frac{f(a + v) - f(a) - Df(a)(v)}{|v|} = 0 \]
Let \(v = tx\). By linearity of \(Df(a)\), \(Df(a)(tx) = t Df(a)(x)\). Multiplying by \(|x|\):
\[ \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a + tx) - f(a) - t Df(a)(x)}{|t|} = 0 \implies \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a + tx) - f(a)}{t} = Df(a)(x) \]
Thus, \(D_x f(a) = Df(a)(x)\). Because \(Df(a)\) is a linear transformation:
\[ D_{x+y} f(a) = Df(a)(x+y) = Df(a)(x) + Df(a)(y) = D_x f(a) + D_y f(a) \] ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
(a) Direction \(e_i\) changes only coordinate \(i\), giving the ordinary partial derivative. (b) For \(c\ne0\), substitute \(s=ct\) in the directional limit to obtain \(D_{cx}f(a)=cD_xf(a)\); for \(c=0\), both sides are zero. (c) If \(f\) is fully differentiable, write \(f(a+h)=f(a)+Df(a)h+o(|h|)\) and set \(h=tx\). Dividing by \(t\) gives \(D_xf(a)=Df(a)x\). Additivity then follows from linearity of \(Df(a)\). Without full differentiability, additivity is not guaranteed.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
(a) \(e_i\) direction sirf coordinate \(i\) badalti hai, isliye directional derivative partial derivative hi hai. (b) \(c\ne0\) ke liye \(s=ct\) substitute karne se \(D_{cx}=cD_x\); \(c=0\) trivial. (c) Full differentiability ka expansion lo aur \(h=tx\) rakho. \(t\) se divide karke \(D_xf(a)=Df(a)x\) milta hai. Derivative linear map hai, isliye \(D_{x+y}=D_x+D_y\). Full differentiability ke bina yeh additivity zaroori nahi.
Problem 2.30
Question
Let \(g: S^1 \to \mathbf{R}\) be continuous with \(g(1, 0) = g(0, 1) = 0\), and \(g(-v) = -g(v)\). Define \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \to \mathbf{R}\) as \(f(v) = |v| g\left(\frac{v}{|v|}\right)\) for \(v \neq 0\), and \(f(0) = 0\). Show \(D_x f(0,0)\) exists for all \(x\), but \(D_{x+y} f(0,0) = D_x f(0,0) + D_y f(0,0)\) fails if \(g \neq 0\).
Solution
Part 1: For \(x \neq 0\) and \(t > 0\): \(f(tx) = t|x| g\left(\frac{x}{|x|}\right) = t f(x)\).
For \(t < 0\): \(f(tx) = -t|x| g\left(-\frac{x}{|x|}\right) = t|x| g\left(\frac{x}{|x|}\right) = t f(x)\).
Oddness of \(g\) makes \(f(tv)=tf(v)\) for positive and negative \(t\), so \(D_vf(0)=f(v)\) for every direction. On the coordinate axes this is zero because \(g(1,0)=g(0,1)=0\), including opposite directions by oddness. If \(g\ne0\), choose a unit vector \(v=(v_1,v_2)\) with \(g(v)\ne0\). Write \(v=(v_1,0)+(0,v_2)\). The directional derivative in each summand direction is zero, but in direction \(v\) it equals \(f(v)=g(v)\ne0\). Thus the directional-derivative map is not additive.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
\(g\) odd hone se positive aur negative dono \(t\) par \(f(tv)=tf(v)\). Isliye origin par har direction ka derivative \(f(v)\) hai. Axes par \(g\) zero hai, to x-axis aur y-axis directions ke derivatives zero. Lekin \(g(v)\ne0\) wala unit \(v=(v_1,v_2)\) lo. Usko axis components mein split karo; dono component derivatives zero, par combined direction ka derivative \(g(v)\ne0\). Additivity fail, hence full derivative nahi.
Problem 2.31
Question
Let \(f(x, y) = 1\) if \(0 < y < x^2\), and \(0\) otherwise. Show \(D_x f(0,0)\) exists for all \(x\), although \(f\) is not continuous at \((0,0)\).
Solution
First Part: \(f(0,0) = 0\). Along the path \(y = \frac{1}{2}x^2\), \(0 < \frac{1}{2}x^2 < x^2\), so \(f(x, \frac{1}{2}x^2) = 1\).
Part 2: For direction \(v = (v_1, v_2)\):
\[ D_v f(0,0) = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(tv_1, tv_2)}{t} \]
For \(v_2 \neq 0\), the condition for \(f=1\) is \(0 < tv_2 < t^2v_1^2\). As \(t \to 0\), \(t^2\) dominates, making the inequality false for small \(t\). Thus \(f(tv_1, tv_2) = 0\) near \(t=0\). The limit evaluates to \(0\). Directional derivatives exist everywhere and equal to \(0\). ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
The function is the indicator of the thin region \(00\). Along the parabola \(y=x^2/2\), values remain 1 arbitrarily near the origin, while \(f(0,0)=0\); therefore it is discontinuous. For a fixed direction \((a,b)\), points \((ta,tb)\) can lie in the region only if \(0
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Function thin region \(00\), ka indicator hai. Curved path \(y=x^2/2\) origin tak aata hai aur function value 1 rakhta hai; origin par value 0, so discontinuous. Fixed direction \((a,b)\) par point \((ta,tb)\) ko region mein aane ke liye \(0
Problem 2.32
Question (a)
\(f(x) = x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x}\) for \(x \neq 0\), and \(f(0) = 0\). Show \(f'(0)\) exists, but \(f'\) is not continuous at \(0\).
Answer (a)
At \(x=0\), using the limit definition:
\[ f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h^2 \sin(1/h)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} h \sin(1/h) = 0 \quad \text{(by Squeeze Theorem)} \]
For \(x \neq 0\), the derivative is:
\[ f'(x) = 2x \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) - \cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \]
As \(x \to 0\), \(2x \sin(1/x) \to 0\), but \(\cos(1/x)\) oscillates between -1 and 1. The limit \(\lim_{x \to 0} f'(x)\) does not exist, so \(f'\) is not continuous at \(0\). ∎
Question (b)
\(f(x,y) = (x^2 + y^2) \sin \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2 + y^2}}\) for \((x,y) \neq 0\), and \(0\) otherwise. Show \(f\) is differentiable at \(0\), but \(D_1 f\) is not continuous at \(0\).
Along \(y=0\), \(D_1 f(x,0) = 2x \sin(1/|x|) - \frac{x}{|x|} \cos(1/|x|)\). As \(x \to 0\), the second term oscillates indefinitely. Hence, \(D_1 f\) is discontinuous at \((0,0)\). ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
(a) At zero, \(f(h)/h=h\sin(1/h)\to0\). Away from zero, \(f'(x)=2x\sin(1/x)-\cos(1/x)\); the cosine term has different subsequential limits, so \(f'\) is discontinuous. (b) Put \(r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\). The function is \(r^2\sin(1/r)\), and its remainder after the zero linear map satisfies \(|f|/r\le r\to0\). Yet for \(r>0\), \(D_1f=2x\sin(1/r)-(x/r)\cos(1/r)\); along \(y=0,x>0\), its last term oscillates. Differentiability at a point does not mean the derivative varies continuously nearby.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
(a) Origin par quotient \(h\sin(1/h)\to0\), to derivative exists. Bahar derivative mein \(-\cos(1/x)\) aata hai jo origin ke paas oscillate karta hai; continuity fail. (b) \(r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\) lo. \(f=r^2\sin(1/r)\), isliye zero-map error quotient \(|f|/r\le r\to0\): differentiable. Par \(D_1f=2x\sin(1/r)-(x/r)\cos(1/r)\). Positive x-axis par cosine oscillation rehta hai. Ek point par differentiability, nearby derivative continuity guarantee nahi karti.
Problem 2.33
Question
Show that the continuity of \(D_1f^j\) at \(a\) may be eliminated from the hypothesis of Theorem 2-8.
Solution
Theorem 2-8 establishes that a function \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}^m\) is differentiable at \(a\) if all its partial derivatives exist in an open set containing \(a\) and are continuous at \(a\). We want to show that \(D_1f\) only needs to exist at \(a\), without requiring continuity. Since differentiability of a vector-valued function is equivalent to the differentiability of its components, we consider \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}\) without loss of generality.
To prove differentiability at \(a\), we must show that:
\[ \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h) - f(a) - \sum_{i=1}^n D_if(a)h_i}{|h|} = 0 \]
Consider the telescoping sum for \(f(a+h) - f(a)\), ordering the sequence of points so that the first coordinate is shifted first:
We can write \(f(a+h) - f(a) = \sum_{i=1}^n (f(p_i) - f(p_{i-1}))\).
For the first term (\(i=1\)), by the fundamental definition of the partial derivative at \(a\):
\[ f(p_1) - f(p_0) = f(a_1+h_1, a_2, \dots, a_n) - f(a) = D_1f(a)h_1 + r(h_1) \]
where \(\lim_{h_1 \to 0} \frac{r(h_1)}{h_1} = 0\). Note that this step only requires the existence of \(D_1f\) at \(a\).
For \(i \ge 2\), since \(D_if\) exists and is continuous in a neighborhood of \(a\), we apply the Mean Value Theorem on the segment between \(p_{i-1}\) and \(p_i\):
\[ f(p_i) - f(p_{i-1}) = D_if(q_i)h_i \]
where \(q_i\) lies on the line segment between \(p_{i-1}\) and \(p_i\). As \(h \to 0\), \(q_i \to a\). By the continuity of \(D_if\) (for \(i \ge 2\)), we have \(D_if(q_i) \to D_if(a)\).
Substituting these expressions back into the limit fraction:
\[ f(a+h) - f(a) - \sum_{i=1}^n D_if(a)h_i = r(h_1) + \sum_{i=2}^n (D_if(q_i) - D_if(a))h_i \]
Dividing by \(|h|\) and taking the absolute value:
\[ \frac{\left|f(a+h) - f(a) - \sum_{i=1}^n D_if(a)h_i\right|}{|h|} \le \frac{|r(h_1)|}{|h|} + \sum_{i=2}^n |D_if(q_i) - D_if(a)| \frac{|h_i|}{|h|} \]
Since \(|h_1| \le |h|\) and \(|h_i| \le |h|\), we can bound this by:
\[ \le \frac{|r(h_1)|}{|h_1|} + \sum_{i=2}^n |D_if(q_i) - D_if(a)| \]
As \(h \to 0\), the first term \(\frac{|r(h_1)|}{|h_1|} \to 0\) (due to the existence of \(D_1f(a)\)) and the second term \(|D_if(q_i) - D_if(a)| \to 0\) (due to the continuity of the remaining partial derivatives).
Therefore, the limit evaluates to \(0\), proving \(f\) is differentiable at \(a\) even without the continuity of \(D_1f\). ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Shift coordinate 1 first. Its increment equals \(D_1f(a)h_1+o(|h_1|)\) by existence of that partial at \(a\); no continuity of \(D_1f\) is used. For each later coordinate, apply one-variable MVT at a nearby intermediate point \(q_i\), obtaining \(h_iD_if(q_i)\). Continuity of \(D_if\) at \(a\) for \(i\ge2\) makes \(D_if(q_i)-D_if(a)=o(1)\). Divide the finite sum of errors by \(|h|\), using \(|h_i|\le|h|\). The quotient tends to zero, proving differentiability.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Coordinate 1 ko sabse pehle change karo. Uska increment sirf \(D_1f(a)\) ke exist hone se \(D_1f(a)h_1+o(|h_1|)\) hai; continuity nahi chahiye. Baaki coordinates ke liye nearby point par one-variable MVT lagta hai: \(h_iD_if(q_i)\). \(i\ge2\) partials ki continuity se \(D_if(q_i)-D_if(a)\to0\). Finite errors ko \(|h|\) se divide karo aur \(|h_i|\le|h|\) use karo; result zero. Isliye full differentiability.
Problem 2.34
Question
If \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}\) is homogeneous of degree \(m\) (\(f(tx) = t^m f(x)\)) and differentiable, show \(\sum_{i=1}^n x^i D_i f(x) = m f(x)\).
Solution
Let \(g(t) = f(tx)\). Using the Chain Rule on \((tx^1, \dots, tx^n)\):
\[ g'(t) = \sum_{i=1}^n D_i f(tx) \cdot x^i \]
Using the homogeneous property \(g(t) = t^m f(x)\):
\[ g'(t) = m t^{m-1} f(x) \]
Equating both expressions and setting \(t=1\):
\[ \sum_{i=1}^n x^i D_i f(x) = m (1)^{m-1} f(x) = m f(x) \] ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Fix \(x\) and define \(H(t)=f(tx)\). The chain rule gives \(H'(1)=Df(x)x=\sum_i x^iD_if(x)\). Homogeneity gives the same one-variable function as \(H(t)=t^m f(x)\), so \(H'(1)=mf(x)\). Equating the two expressions proves Euler's identity. Only \(t\) near 1 is needed, so the argument works wherever the homogeneity relation and differentiability hold locally.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
\(x\) fix karke \(H(t)=f(tx)\) lo. Chain rule se \(H'(1)=\sum_i x^iD_if(x)\). Homogeneity se wahi \(H(t)=t^mf(x)\), jiska derivative at 1 \(mf(x)\) hai. Dono equal karne par Euler identity milti hai. Sirf \(t=1\) ke paas relation chahiye.
Problem 2.35
Question
If \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}\) is differentiable and \(f(0) = 0\), prove \(f(x) = \sum_{i=1}^n x^i g_i(x)\).
Solution
Let \(h_x(t) = f(tx)\). By the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus:
\[ \int_0^1 h_x'(t) dt = h_x(1) - h_x(0) = f(x) - f(0) = f(x) \]
By the Chain Rule:
\[ h_x'(t) = \sum_{i=1}^n D_i f(tx) \cdot x^i \]
For the source's integral proof, \(C^1\) is a sufficient extra hypothesis: apply the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to \(H_x(t)=f(tx)\), obtaining \(g_i(x)=\int_0^1D_if(tx)dt\). Bare differentiability does not ensure those derivatives are Riemann integrable.
Complete proof under the stated differentiability alone: Set \(p_i=(x^1,\ldots,x^i,0,\ldots,0)\), with \(p_0=0\). If \(x^i\ne0\), define \(g_i(x)=[f(p_i)-f(p_{i-1})]/x^i\); if \(x^i=0\), define \(g_i(x)=D_if(p_{i-1})\). Then \(x^ig_i(x)=f(p_i)-f(p_{i-1})\) in both cases. Sum over \(i\): the terms telescope to \(f(x)-f(0)=f(x)\). No integral is needed. The question does not require the \(g_i\) to be continuous.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Source ka integral proof \(C^1\) hone par valid hai: \(H_x(t)=f(tx)\) par FTC se \(g_i(x)=\int_0^1D_if(tx)dt\). Sirf differentiability se derivatives ka Riemann integrable hona guaranteed nahi.
Sirf given differentiability par complete proof: \(p_i=(x^1,\ldots,x^i,0,\ldots,0)\), \(p_0=0\) lo. \(x^i\ne0\) par \(g_i(x)=[f(p_i)-f(p_{i-1})]/x^i\); \(x^i=0\) par \(g_i(x)=D_if(p_{i-1})\) define karo. Dono cases mein \(x^ig_i(x)=f(p_i)-f(p_{i-1})\). Sab terms add karne par telescoping se \(f(x)-f(0)=f(x)\). Integral ki zaroorat nahi. Question ne \(g_i\) continuous hone ko nahi kaha.
Problem 2.37
Question (a)
Let \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \to \mathbf{R}\) be a continuously differentiable function. Show that \(f\) is not 1-1.
Proof (a)
Assume, for contradiction, that \(f\) is 1-1. Since \(f\) is injective, it cannot be a constant function. Thus, there exists a point \((a,b) \in \mathbf{R}^2\) such that \(\nabla f(a,b) \neq 0\). Without loss of generality, assume \(D_1 f(a,b) \neq 0\).
Define \(g: \mathbf{R}^2 \to \mathbf{R}^2\) by \(g(x,y) = (f(x,y), y)\).
The Jacobian matrix of \(g\) is:
\[ Dg(x,y) = \begin{pmatrix} D_1 f(x,y) & D_2 f(x,y) \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \]
At \((a,b)\), \(\det Dg(a,b) = D_1 f(a,b) \neq 0\).
By the Inverse Function Theorem, there exists an open neighborhood \(U\) of \((a,b)\) and an open neighborhood \(V\) of \(g(a,b)\) such that \(g: U \to V\) is a diffeomorphism.
Since \(V\) is open, it contains distinct points of the form \((c, y_1)\) and \((c, y_2)\) where \(y_1 \neq y_2\).
Let \(u_1 = g^{-1}(c, y_1)\) and \(u_2 = g^{-1}(c, y_2)\) in \(U\). Since \((c, y_1) \neq (c, y_2)\), we have \(u_1 \neq u_2\).
However, by the definition of \(g\), \(g(x,y) = (f(x,y), y)\) implies that \(f(u_1) = c\) and \(f(u_2) = c\).
Therefore, \(f(u_1) = f(u_2)\) for \(u_1 \neq u_2\), which contradicts the assumption that \(f\) is 1-1. ∎
Question (b)
Generalize this result to the case of a continuously differentiable function \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}^m\) with \(m < n\).
Proof (b)
Let \(k\) be the maximal rank of \(Df\) on \(\mathbf{R}^n\). Note that \(k \le m < n\).
Suppose this maximal rank \(k\) is attained at a point \(p \in \mathbf{R}^n\). By permuting the coordinates if necessary, assume without loss of generality that the upper-left \(k \times k\) submatrix of \(Df(p)\) is invertible.
The Jacobian matrix \(DG(p)\) is block-triangular, and \(\det DG(p) \neq 0\).
By the Inverse Function Theorem, \(G\) is a local diffeomorphism near \(p\).
Consider the local change of coordinates \(y = G(x)\). In these coordinates, \(f\) takes the form:
\[ \tilde{f}(y) = f(G^{-1}(y)) = (y_1, \dots, y_k, \tilde{f}_{k+1}(y), \dots, \tilde{f}_m(y)) \]
Since coordinate transformations do not change the rank, the rank of \(D\tilde{f}\) is at most \(k\). Because the first \(k\) components already provide a rank of \(k\), we must have \(\frac{\partial \tilde{f}_i}{\partial y_j} = 0\) for all \(i > k\) and \(j > k\).
Since \(n > m \ge k\), the variable \(y_n\) exists. The condition \(\frac{\partial \tilde{f}}{\partial y_n} = 0\) implies \(\tilde{f}\) is completely independent of \(y_n\).
Thus, for a small \(\epsilon > 0\), we have:
\[ \tilde{f}(y_1, \dots, y_{n-1}, 0) = \tilde{f}(y_1, \dots, y_{n-1}, \epsilon) \]
This shows \(f\) maps distinct points to the exact same value. Therefore, \(f\) is not 1-1. ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
(a) If a \(C^1\) scalar map on \(\mathbb R^2\) were injective, it would not be constant, so some partial derivative would be nonzero somewhere. Suppose \(D_1f(a,b)\ne0\). Then \(G(x,y)=(f(x,y),y)\) has invertible Jacobian locally. Its image contains two distinct points with the same first coordinate but different second coordinates; their preimages are different yet have the same \(f\)-value, a contradiction.
(b) For \(m
Hinglish mein poora explanation
(a) Injective \(C^1\) scalar function constant nahi ho sakta, isliye kahin koi partial nonzero hoga. \(D_1f(a,b)\ne0\) maan kar \(G(x,y)=(f(x,y),y)\) banao. Jacobian invertible, to local image open. Open image mein same first coordinate aur different second coordinate wale do points hain. Unke preimages different, par \(f\)-value same: contradiction.
(b) \(m
Problem 2.38
Question (a)
If \(f: \mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}\) satisfies \(f'(a) \neq 0\) for all \(a \in \mathbf{R}\), show that \(f\) is 1-1.
Proof (a)
Let \(x_1, x_2 \in \mathbf{R}\) with \(x_1 \neq x_2\). Without loss of generality, assume \(x_1 < x_2\).
Since \(f\) is differentiable everywhere on \(\mathbf{R}\), it is continuous on \([x_1, x_2]\) and differentiable on \((x_1, x_2)\).
By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists \(c \in (x_1, x_2)\) such that:
\[ f(x_2) - f(x_1) = f'(c)(x_2 - x_1) \]
We are given that \(f'(a) \neq 0\) for all \(a \in \mathbf{R}\), which implies \(f'(c) \neq 0\).
Since \(x_1 < x_2\), we know \(x_2 - x_1 > 0\). Thus, the product \(f'(c)(x_2 - x_1) \neq 0\), which yields:
\[ f(x_2) - f(x_1) \neq 0 \implies f(x_1) \neq f(x_2) \]
Since \(f(x_1) \neq f(x_2)\) for all \(x_1 \neq x_2\), the function \(f\) is 1-1. ∎
Question (b)
Define \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \to \mathbf{R}^2\) by \(f(x,y) = (e^x \cos y, e^x \sin y)\). Show that \(\det f'(x,y) \neq 0\) for all \((x,y)\) but \(f\) is not 1-1.
Proof (b)
First, we compute the Jacobian matrix \(f'(x,y)\):
\[ f'(x,y) = \begin{pmatrix} \frac{\partial}{\partial x}(e^x \cos y) & \frac{\partial}{\partial y}(e^x \cos y) \\ \frac{\partial}{\partial x}(e^x \sin y) & \frac{\partial}{\partial y}(e^x \sin y) \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} e^x \cos y & -e^x \sin y \\ e^x \sin y & e^x \cos y \end{pmatrix} \]
The Jacobian determinant is:
\[ \det f'(x,y) = (e^x \cos y)(e^x \cos y) - (-e^x \sin y)(e^x \sin y) \]
\[ \det f'(x,y) = e^{2x} \cos^2 y + e^{2x} \sin^2 y = e^{2x}(\cos^2 y + \sin^2 y) \]
Using the identity \(\cos^2 y + \sin^2 y = 1\), we obtain:
\[ \det f'(x,y) = e^{2x} \]
Since the exponential function is strictly positive for all \(x \in \mathbf{R}\), \(e^{2x} > 0\). Thus, \(\det f'(x,y) \neq 0\) for all \((x,y) \in \mathbf{R}^2\).
Next, we show \(f\) is not 1-1. Consider the distinct points \((0, 0)\) and \((0, 2\pi)\) in \(\mathbf{R}^2\):
\[ f(0, 0) = (e^0 \cos 0, e^0 \sin 0) = (1, 0) \]
\[ f(0, 2\pi) = (e^0 \cos 2\pi, e^0 \sin 2\pi) = (1, 0) \]
We observe that \(f(0, 0) = f(0, 2\pi)\) despite \((0, 0) \neq (0, 2\pi)\).
Since distinct inputs map to the same output, \(f\) is not injective. ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
(a) If \(f(x_1)=f(x_2)\) for \(x_1(b) For \(F(x,y)=(e^x\cos y,e^x\sin y)\), \(\det DF=e^{2x}>0\). Nevertheless \(F(x,y+2\pi)=F(x,y)\). Thus nonsingular derivative gives local, not global, injectivity: the angle wraps around.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
(a) Do different points ka same value maan lo. Rolle theorem beech mein derivative zero deta hai, jo assumption se contradiction hai. (b) \(F(x,y)=(e^x\cos y,e^x\sin y)\) ka determinant \(e^{2x}>0\), par \(y\) mein \(2\pi\) add karne se same output. Angle wrap hota hai, isliye Jacobian invertible hone se sirf local injectivity milti hai.