Name: Shivajee Kumar Roll No: 240423 Course: MTH403 Real Analysis II Assignment: HW-2
Problem 1
Question (d)
Use the theorems of this section to find \(f'\) for the following:
\[ f(x,y,z) = \sin(x \sin(y \sin z)) \]
Solution
The function \(f\) takes 3 inputs \((x, y, z)\) and returns a scalar, so its derivative \(f'\) is a \(1 \times 3\) Jacobian matrix containing the partial derivatives with respect to each variable:
\[ f'(x,y,z) = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} & \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} \end{bmatrix} \]
The final answer is:
\[ f'(x,y) = \begin{bmatrix} y \cos 3 \cos(xy) [\sin(xy)]^{\cos 3 - 1} & x \cos 3 \cos(xy) [\sin(xy)]^{\cos 3 - 1} \end{bmatrix} \]
Question (j)
Use the theorems of this section to find \(f'\) for the following:
\[ f(x,y) = (\sin(xy), \sin(x \sin y), x^y) \]
Solution
This is a vector-valued function with 2 inputs and 3 outputs. Its derivative \(f'\) is a \(3 \times 2\) Jacobian matrix. Let component functions be:
\(f_1(x,y) = \sin(xy)\)
\(f_2(x,y) = \sin(x \sin y)\)
\(f_3(x,y) = x^y\)
Finding partial derivatives for each component:
For \(f_1\):
\(\frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x} = y \cos(xy)\) and \(\frac{\partial f_1}{\partial y} = x \cos(xy)\)
For \(f_2\):
\(\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x} = \sin y \cos(x \sin y)\) and \(\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial y} = x \cos y \cos(x \sin y)\)
For \(f_3\):
\(\frac{\partial f_3}{\partial x} = y x^{y-1}\) (power rule) and \(\frac{\partial f_3}{\partial y} = x^y \ln x\) (exponential rule)
Arranging these into the Jacobian matrix:
\[ f'(x,y) = \begin{bmatrix}
y \cos(xy) & x \cos(xy) \\
\sin y \cos(x \sin y) & x \cos y \cos(x \sin y) \\
y x^{y-1} & x^y \ln x
\end{bmatrix} \]
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
(d) Set \(u=y\sin z\), \(v=\sin u\), \(w=xv\), \(f=\sin w\). Differentiate from outside in. Thus \(f_x=\cos w\,v\), \(f_y=\cos w\,x\cos u\sin z\), and \(f_z=\cos w\,x\cos u\,y\cos z\). These form a 1×3 row.
(i) Here \(\cos3\) is a constant exponent. On the real domain \(\sin(xy)>0\), differentiate \(u^{\cos3}\): each partial is \((\cos3)u^{\cos3-1}\cos(xy)\) times \(y\) or \(x\). The domain condition matters because a negative base to an irrational real exponent is not real-valued.
(j) Differentiate each of the three output components with respect to \(x,y\), placing one component per Jacobian row. For \(x^y=e^{y\log x}\), work on \(x>0\); its derivatives are \(yx^{y-1}\) and \(x^y\log x\).
(i) \(\cos3\) constant exponent hai. Real-valued formula ke liye \(\sin(xy)>0\) domain lo. Power rule ke baad inner \(\sin(xy)\) ka derivative x ke liye \(y\cos(xy)\), y ke liye \(x\cos(xy)\).
(j) Teen outputs, do inputs: Jacobian 3×2. Har output ki x aur y partial ek row mein rakho. \(x^y=e^{y\log x}\) likhne par \(x>0\) domain aur dono derivatives clear ho jate hain.
Problem 2-11(b)
Question
Find \(f'\) for the following (where \(g: \mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}\) is continuous):
\[ f(x,y) = \int_{a}^{x \cdot y} g \]
Solution
We use the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus along with the Chain Rule. Let's rewrite the integral with a dummy variable \(t\): \(f(x,y) = \int_{a}^{xy} g(t) dt\).
1. Partial derivative with respect to \(x\) (treating \(y\) as constant):
\[ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = g(xy) \cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial x}(xy) = g(xy) \cdot y \]
2. Partial derivative with respect to \(y\) (treating \(x\) as constant):
\[ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = g(xy) \cdot \frac{\partial}{\partial y}(xy) = g(xy) \cdot x \]
The final derivative is a row matrix:
\[ f'(x,y) = \begin{bmatrix} y \cdot g(xy) & x \cdot g(xy) \end{bmatrix} \]
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Introduce \(G(s)=\int_a^s g(t)\,dt\). Continuity of \(g\) gives \(G'(s)=g(s)\) by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. Since \(f(x,y)=G(xy)\), the chain rule yields \(Df(x,y)(h,k)=g(xy)(yh+xk)\). Therefore the Jacobian is \([\,yg(xy)\quad xg(xy)\,]\). This also explains why no derivative of \(g\) is needed.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Pehle \(G(s)=\int_a^s g(t)dt\) define karo. \(g\) continuous hai, isliye FTC se \(G'(s)=g(s)\). Ab \(f(x,y)=G(xy)\). Inner product \(xy\) ka small change \(yh+xk\) hai, to derivative \(g(xy)(yh+xk)\). Jacobian \([yg(xy),xg(xy)]\) hai. \(g'\) ki zaroorat nahi.
Problem 2-12
Question
A function \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \times \mathbf{R}^m \to \mathbf{R}^p\) is bilinear if for \(x,x_1,x_2 \in \mathbf{R}^n\), \(y,y_1,y_2 \in \mathbf{R}^m\), and \(a \in \mathbf{R}\) we have
\begin{align*}
f(ax,y) &= af(x,y) = f(x,ay), \\
f(x_1 + x_2,y) &= f(x_1,y) + f(x_2,y), \\
f(x,y_1 + y_2) &= f(x,y_1) + f(x,y_2).
\end{align*}
(a) Prove that if \(f\) is bilinear, then \(\lim_{(h,k) \to 0} \frac{\vert f(h,k) \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} = 0\). (b) Prove that \(Df(a,b)(x,y) = f(a,y) + f(x,b)\). (c) Show that the formula for \(Dp(a,b)\) in Theorem 2-3 is a special case of (b).
(a) Proof
A bilinear map on finite-dimensional spaces is always bounded. Thus, there exists a constant \(M > 0\) such that \(\vert f(h,k) \vert \le M \vert h \vert \vert k \vert\).
The norm of the vector \((h,k)\) is \(\vert (h,k) \vert = \sqrt{\vert h \vert^2 + \vert k \vert^2}\). This clearly means \(\vert h \vert \le \vert (h,k) \vert\).
We can write our limit expression as:
\[ \frac{\vert f(h,k) \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} \le \frac{M \vert h \vert \vert k \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} = M \left( \frac{\vert h \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} \right) \vert k \vert \le M \cdot 1 \cdot \vert k \vert \]
As \((h,k) \to 0\), we have \(k \to 0\). So, \(M \vert k \vert \to 0\).
By the Squeeze Theorem, \(\lim_{(h,k) \to 0} \frac{\vert f(h,k) \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} = 0\). ∎
(b) Proof
Let our candidate for the derivative be the linear map \(L(h,k) = f(a,k) + f(h,b)\). By the definition of the derivative, we need to show that:
\[ \lim_{(h,k) \to 0} \frac{\vert f(a+h, b+k) - f(a,b) - L(h,k) \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert} = 0 \]
Using bilinearity, we expand the first term:
\[ f(a+h, b+k) = f(a,b) + f(a,k) + f(h,b) + f(h,k) \]
Substituting this into the numerator of our limit:
\begin{align*}
\text{Numerator} &= [f(a,b) + f(a,k) + f(h,b) + f(h,k)] - f(a,b) - [f(a,k) + f(h,b)] \\
&= f(h,k)
\end{align*}
So the limit becomes \(\lim_{(h,k) \to 0} \frac{\vert f(h,k) \vert}{\vert (h,k) \vert}\). From Part (a), we know this limit is exactly \(0\).
Therefore, our candidate map is the correct derivative: \(Df(a,b)(x,y) = f(a,y) + f(x,b)\). ∎
(c) Proof
The simple multiplication function \(p(x,y) = x \cdot y\) is bilinear because \(p(cx, y) = c(xy) = cp(x,y)\) and \(p(x_1+x_2, y) = (x_1+x_2)y = p(x_1, y) + p(x_2, y)\).
Since it is bilinear, we can use the formula from Part (b):
\[ Dp(a,b)(x,y) = p(a,y) + p(x,b) = a \cdot y + x \cdot b = ay + bx \]
This is exactly the standard product rule for derivatives presented in Theorem 2-3. Thus, it is a special case. ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
A bilinear map satisfies \(|f(h,k)|\le M|h||k|\): expand in standard bases and bound its finitely many coefficients. Since \(|h|,|k|\le|(h,k)|\), this is at most \(M|(h,k)|^2\), so the quotient by \(|(h,k)|\) tends to zero.
Expand \(f(a+h,b+k)\) into four terms. Subtract \(f(a,b)\); the linear terms are \(f(a,k)+f(h,b)\), while \(f(h,k)\) is the quadratic remainder just bounded. Hence \(Df(a,b)(h,k)=f(a,k)+f(h,b)\). For ordinary multiplication \(p(s,t)=st\), this becomes \(Dp(a,b)(h,k)=ak+hb\).
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Bilinear map ke basis coefficients finitely many hain, isliye \(|f(h,k)|\le M|h||k|\). Dono \(|h|,|k|\) product-space norm se chhote hain; quotient \(|f(h,k)|/|(h,k)|\le M|(h,k)|\to0\).
\(f(a+h,b+k)\) expand karne par four terms: old value, \(f(a,k)\), \(f(h,b)\), aur \(f(h,k)\). Last term second-order error hai; middle two linear derivative banate hain. Ordinary product \(st\) par yahi formula \(ak+hb\) deta hai.
Problem 2-16
Question
Suppose \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}^n\) is differentiable and has a differentiable inverse \(f^{-1}: \mathbf{R}^n \to \mathbf{R}^n\). Show that \((f^{-1})'(a) = [f'(f^{-1}(a))]^{-1}\). Hint: \(f \circ f^{-1}(x) = x\).
Proof
By the definition of an inverse function, for all \(x\), we have:
\[ f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \]
We differentiate both sides with respect to \(x\).
For the left side, we use the multivariable Chain Rule. The derivative of the outer function \(f\) is evaluated at \(f^{-1}(x)\), and then multiplied by the derivative of the inner function \(f^{-1}(x)\):
\[ \frac{d}{dx}[f(f^{-1}(x))] = f'(f^{-1}(x)) \cdot (f^{-1})'(x) \]
For the right side, the derivative of the identity function \(x\) is the Identity Matrix \(I\):
\[ \frac{d}{dx}[x] = I \]
Equating both sides, we get:
\[ f'(f^{-1}(x)) \cdot (f^{-1})'(x) = I \]
Now, substitute the specific point \(x = a\):
\[ f'(f^{-1}(a)) \cdot (f^{-1})'(a) = I \]
Since the product of these two matrices is the Identity Matrix, they are inverses of each other. Multiplying both sides by the matrix inverse of \(f'(f^{-1}(a))\) gives:
\[ (f^{-1})'(a) = [f'(f^{-1}(a))]^{-1} \]
∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Set \(x=f^{-1}(a)\). Identity \(f\circ f^{-1}=\operatorname{id}\) differentiated at \(a\) gives \(Df(x)D(f^{-1})(a)=I\). Thus \(Df(x)\) has a right inverse. Since it is square, it is invertible, and multiplying by its inverse yields \(D(f^{-1})(a)=[Df(f^{-1}(a))]^{-1}\). Keep the evaluation points straight: \(Df\) is evaluated at the preimage of \(a\).
Hinglish mein poora explanation
\(x=f^{-1}(a)\) rakho. Identity \(f(f^{-1}(a))=a\) ko differentiate karo: \(Df(x)D(f^{-1})(a)=I\). Square matrix ke paas right inverse ho to woh invertible hota hai. Isliye inverse derivative \([Df(f^{-1}(a))]^{-1}\). Dhyan: \(Df\) ko output \(a\) par nahi, uske preimage par evaluate karna hai.
Problem 2-20(e)
Question
Find the partial derivatives of \(f\) in terms of the derivatives of \(g\) and \(h\) if:
\[ f(x,y) = g(x+y) \]
Solution
We use the chain rule. Let \(g'\) denote the derivative of the outer function \(g\).
Both partial derivatives are equal to \(g'(x+y)\).
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Write \(u=x+y\). The derivative \(Du(h,k)=h+k\), and \(f=g\circ u\). Chain rule gives \(Df(x,y)(h,k)=g'(x+y)(h+k)\). Testing \((h,k)=(1,0)\) and \((0,1)\) shows both partials equal \(g'(x+y)\). The source question mentions \(h\), but this displayed example only uses \(g\).
Hinglish mein poora explanation
Inner variable \(u=x+y\) lo. Uska derivative direction \((h,k)\) mein \(h+k\) hai. Outer \(g\) ka derivative lagane se \(Df(x,y)(h,k)=g'(x+y)(h+k)\). x aur y partial dono \(g'(x+y)\). Source question mein \(h\) ka naam aata hai, lekin displayed formula mein sirf \(g\) hai.
Problem 2-22
Question
If \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \to \mathbf{R}\) and \(D_2f = 0\), show that \(f\) is independent of the second variable. If \(D_1f = D_2f = 0\), show that \(f\) is constant.
Part 1: \(D_2f = 0\)
Firstly, fix the variable \(x\) to some constant value \(x_0\). Define a single-variable function \(g(y) = f(x_0, y)\).
The derivative of \(g\) is the partial derivative of \(f\) with respect to \(y\):
\[ g'(y) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(x_0, y) = D_2f(x_0, y) \]
We are given that \(D_2f = 0\) everywhere. This means \(g'(y) = 0\) for all \(y\). By the Mean Value Theorem from single-variable calculus, if a function's derivative is zero everywhere, the function must be a constant.
Thus, \(f(x_0, y)\) does not change as \(y\) changes. Since \(x_0\) was arbitrary, this holds for any \(x\). Therefore, \(f\) is independent of \(y\). ∎
Part 2: \(D_1f = D_2f = 0\)
According to Part 1, since \(D_2f = 0\), the function \(f\) does not depend on \(y\). We can write it as a function of \(x\) alone: \(f(x,y) = h(x)\).
Now we use the second condition: \(D_1f = 0\).
The partial derivative of \(f\) with respect to \(x\) is just the regular derivative of \(h(x)\):
\[ D_1f(x,y) = h'(x) = 0 \]
Since \(h'(x) = 0\) for all \(x\), the Mean Value Theorem again tells us that \(h(x)\) must be a constant \(C\).
Therefore, \(f(x,y) = h(x) = C\) for all pairs \((x,y)\). The function \(f\) is constant. ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
Fix \(x=x_0\) and consider \(y\mapsto f(x_0,y)\). Its derivative is \(D_2f(x_0,y)=0\) everywhere. By the one-variable MVT, its values at any two \(y\)'s agree; hence \(f(x,y)=c(x)\). If also \(D_1f=0\), then \(c'(x)=0\) and another application of MVT makes \(c\) constant. The connected full domain \(\mathbb R^2\) matters; on disconnected domains constants can differ between components.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
\(x=x_0\) fix karke \(y\mapsto f(x_0,y)\) dekho. Iska derivative har jagah zero hai, to one-variable MVT se kisi bhi do y-values par function same. Matlab \(f(x,y)=c(x)\). Agar \(D_1f=0\) bhi ho, to \(c'(x)=0\), phir MVT se \(c\) constant. Yeh full connected domain \(\mathbb R^2\) par valid hai; disconnected domain par different components mein different constants ho sakte hain.
Cancel the \(h\):
\[ D_1f(0,y) = \lim_{h \to 0} y \frac{h^2 - y^2}{h^2 + y^2} \]
As \(h \to 0\), the fraction becomes \(\frac{-y^2}{y^2} = -1\). Thus, \(D_1f(0,y) = y(-1) = -y\). ∎
(b) Proof
1. For \(D_{1,2}f(0,0)\) (derivative of \(D_2f\) with respect to \(x\)):
\[ D_{1,2}f(0,0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{D_2f(h,0) - D_2f(0,0)}{h} \]
Using \(D_2f(x,0) = x\), we have \(D_2f(h,0) = h\) and \(D_2f(0,0) = 0\):
\[ D_{1,2}f(0,0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{h - 0}{h} = 1 \]
2. For \(D_{2,1}f(0,0)\) (derivative of \(D_1f\) with respect to \(y\)):
\[ D_{2,1}f(0,0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{D_1f(0,h) - D_1f(0,0)}{h} \]
Using \(D_1f(0,y) = -y\), we have \(D_1f(0,h) = -h\) and \(D_1f(0,0) = 0\):
\[ D_{2,1}f(0,0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{-h - 0}{h} = -1 \]
Clearly, \(1 \neq -1\), so \(D_{1,2}f(0,0) \neq D_{2,1}f(0,0)\). ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
On the x-axis, \(f(x,0)=0\) and \(f(x,h)/h=x(x^2-h^2)/(x^2+h^2)\to x\) for \(x\ne0\); at \(x=0\) it is zero, so \(D_2f(x,0)=x\) for all \(x\). Similarly \(D_1f(0,y)=-y\). Now differentiate these first-partial functions at the origin: \(D_1(D_2f)(0,0)=1\), while \(D_2(D_1f)(0,0)=-1\). The mixed partials differ because the continuity hypothesis of Clairaut's theorem fails.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
x-axis par \(f(x,0)=0\). y-direction quotient \(f(x,h)/h\) ka limit \(x\) hai; \(x=0\) par bhi zero. Hence \(D_2f(x,0)=x\). Bilkul waise y-axis par \(D_1f(0,y)=-y\). Ab in functions ko origin par differentiate karo: \(D_1D_2f=1\), aur \(D_2D_1f=-1\). Clairaut theorem contradict nahi hota, kyunki uski second-partial continuity condition yahan nahi hai.
Problem 2-25
Question
Define \(f: \mathbf{R} \to \mathbf{R}\) by
\[
f(x) = \begin{cases}
e^{-x^{-2}} & x \neq 0, \\
0 & x = 0.
\end{cases}
\]
Show that \(f\) is a \(C^\infty\) function, and \(f^{(i)}(0) = 0\) for all \(i\).
Proof
We will use mathematical induction and the limit definition of the derivative.
Using L'Hôpital's Rule, the derivative of the numerator is 1, and the denominator is \(2t e^{t^2}\):
\[ f'(0) = \lim_{t \to \pm \infty} \frac{1}{2t e^{t^2}} = 0 \]
Step 2: General form for \(x \neq 0\)
Using the chain and product rules, every derivative \(f^{(n)}(x)\) for \(x \neq 0\) can be written as a product of a polynomial in terms of \((1/x)\) and the exponential function \(e^{-x^{-2}}\):
\[ f^{(n)}(x) = P_n\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) e^{-x^{-2}} \]
where \(P_n\) is some polynomial.
Step 3: Inductive Step
Assume that for the \(k\)-th derivative, \(f^{(k)}(0) = 0\). We must show \(f^{(k+1)}(0) = 0\).
\[ f^{(k+1)}(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f^{(k)}(h) - f^{(k)}(0)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{P_k(1/h) e^{-h^{-2}}}{h} \]
The numerator is a new polynomial. Because the exponential function \(e^{t^2}\) grows much faster than any polynomial, repeated application of L'Hôpital's Rule will eventually reduce the numerator to a constant, while the exponential remains in the denominator. Therefore, the limit is \(0\).
\[ f^{(k+1)}(0) = 0 \]
Since all derivatives exist and are equal to \(0\) at the origin, the function is \(C^\infty\). ∎
Detailed study guide · source English above
English explanation and missing steps
For \(x\ne0\), each derivative is a polynomial in \(1/x\) times \(e^{-1/x^2}\). The key missing limit is \(|x|^{-N}e^{-1/x^2}\to0\) for every \(N\): put \(t=1/x^2\), then it becomes \(t^{N/2}e^{-t}\to0\). Inductively every derivative at zero is zero, and each derivative formula away from zero tends to that same value. Thus each derivative is continuous at zero and the induction can continue indefinitely.
Hinglish mein poora explanation
\(x\ne0\) par repeated differentiation se \(1/x\) ka polynomial times \(e^{-1/x^2}\) milta hai. Main limit: har \(N\) ke liye \(|x|^{-N}e^{-1/x^2}\to0\). \(t=1/x^2\) rakho, to \(t^{N/2}e^{-t}\to0\); exponential polynomial se faster decay karta hai. Induction se origin par har derivative zero hai, aur bahar wali derivative bhi zero ko approach karti hai. Isliye function \(C^\infty\) hai.