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Real Analysis II
Notes›Real Analysis II›HW-1: Spivak Problems

MTH-403 · Page 5 of 9

HW-1: Spivak Problems

Name: Shivajee Kumar
Roll No: 240423
Course: MTH403 Real Analysis II
Assignment: HW-1
Problem 1 (Spivak 1-7)
Question

A linear transformation \(T: \mathbf{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbf{R}^n\) is norm preserving if \(\vert T(x) \vert = \vert x \vert\), and inner product preserving if \(\langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \langle x, y \rangle\).

(a) Prove that \(T\) is norm preserving if and only if \(T\) is inner-product preserving.
(b) Prove that such a linear transformation \(T\) is 1-1 and \(T^{-1}\) is of the same sort.

Solution

Part 1: Inner-product preserving \(\implies\) Norm preserving

Assume \(T\) preserves inner products. For any \(x, y \in \mathbf{R}^n\): \[ \langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \langle x, y \rangle \]

Let \(y = x\). Substituting this gives: \[ \langle Tx, Tx \rangle = \langle x, x \rangle \]

Using the standard relation between a vector's norm and inner product (\(\Vert x \Vert^2 = \langle x, x \rangle\)): \[ \Vert Tx \Vert^2 = \Vert x \Vert^2 \]

Since norms are non-negative, taking the square root yields: \[ \Vert Tx \Vert = \Vert x \Vert \]

Thus, \(T\) is norm preserving.


Part 2: Norm preserving \(\implies\) Inner-product preserving

Assume \(T\) preserves norms, meaning \(\Vert Tx \Vert = \Vert x \Vert\) for all \(x \in \mathbf{R}^n\).

Recall the polarization identity for any vectors \(x\) and \(y\): \[ \langle x, y \rangle = \frac{1}{2} (\Vert x+y \Vert^2 - \Vert x \Vert^2 - \Vert y \Vert^2) \]

Apply this identity to vectors \(Tx\) and \(Ty\): \[ \langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \frac{1}{2} (\Vert Tx+Ty \Vert^2 - \Vert Tx \Vert^2 - \Vert Ty \Vert^2) \]

Because \(T\) is a linear transformation, \(Tx + Ty = T(x+y)\): \[ \langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \frac{1}{2} (\Vert T(x+y) \Vert^2 - \Vert Tx \Vert^2 - \Vert Ty \Vert^2) \]

By our assumption, \(T\) preserves the norm of any vector (\(\Vert Tv \Vert = \Vert v \Vert\)). Applying this gives: \[ \langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \frac{1}{2} (\Vert x+y \Vert^2 - \Vert x \Vert^2 - \Vert y \Vert^2) \]

The right side is simply the polarization identity for \(\langle x, y \rangle\). Therefore: \[ \langle Tx, Ty \rangle = \langle x, y \rangle \]

Thus, \(T\) is inner-product preserving.


Part 3: Prove \(T\) is 1-1 (Injective)

A linear transformation is injective if its kernel contains only the zero vector (\(\ker(T) = \{0\}\)).

Assume \(Tx = 0\). Taking the norm of both sides: \[ \Vert Tx \Vert = 0 \]

Since \(T\) is norm preserving, \(\Vert Tx \Vert = \Vert x \Vert\). Therefore: \[ \Vert x \Vert = 0 \]

A vector's norm is zero if and only if the vector is zero, so \(x = 0\).

This proves \(\ker(T) = \{0\}\), meaning \(T\) is 1-1.


Part 4: Prove \(T^{-1}\) is of the same sort

Since \(T: \mathbf{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbf{R}^n\) is a 1-1 linear transformation mapping a finite-dimensional space to itself, standard linear algebra dictates that \(T\) is also onto (surjective). Therefore, the inverse \(T^{-1}\) exists.

Let \(y \in \mathbf{R}^n\). Because \(T\) is surjective, there is a unique vector \(x \in \mathbf{R}^n\) such that: \[ Tx = y \implies x = T^{-1}y \]

Taking the norm of the first equation gives: \[ \Vert Tx \Vert = \Vert y \Vert \]

Since \(T\) is norm preserving, replace \(\Vert Tx \Vert\) with \(\Vert x \Vert\): \[ \Vert x \Vert = \Vert y \Vert \]

Finally, substitute \(x = T^{-1}y\) back into the equation: \[ \Vert T^{-1}y \Vert = \Vert y \Vert \]

This proves that \(T^{-1}\) is also norm preserving (and by Part 1, inner-product preserving).

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

  1. Inner product to norm: set \(y=x\). Then \(|Tx|^2=\langle Tx,Tx\rangle=\langle x,x\rangle=|x|^2\); nonnegative square roots are equal.
  2. Norm to inner product: expand \(|x+y|^2\). The cross term is \(2\langle x,y\rangle\). Linearity gives \(T(x+y)=Tx+Ty\), so preserving all three norms in the polarization identity preserves the inner product.
  3. Inverse: \(Tx=0\Rightarrow |x|=|Tx|=0\Rightarrow x=0\). Rank–nullity in equal dimension makes \(T\) onto. For \(y=Tx\), \(|T^{-1}y|=|x|=|Tx|=|y|\); apply the first result again to the inverse.

Hinglish mein poora explanation

  1. Inner product se norm: \(y=x\) rakho. Tab \(|Tx|^2=|x|^2\). Dono norms nonnegative hain, isliye square root lene par equal.
  2. Norm se inner product: \(|x+y|^2=|x|^2+2\langle x,y\rangle+|y|^2\). Linearity se \(T(x+y)=Tx+Ty\); teeno norms preserve hote hain, to beech ka inner product bhi preserve hota hai.
  3. Inverse: \(Tx=0\) se \(|x|=0\), hence kernel zero aur map injective. Same finite dimension mein rank–nullity se onto bhi. \(y=Tx\) lo: \(|T^{-1}y|=|x|=|y|\). Isliye inverse bhi norm aur inner product preserve karta hai.
Problem 2 (Spivak 1-13)
Question

If \(x,y \in \mathbf{R}^n\), then \(x\) and \(y\) are called perpendicular (or orthogonal) if \(\langle x,y \rangle = 0\). If \(x\) and \(y\) are perpendicular, prove that \(\vert x + y \vert^2 = \vert x \vert^2 + \vert y \vert^2\).

Proof

By the standard relationship between a vector's norm and its inner product, \(\Vert v \Vert^2 = \langle v, v \rangle\).

Starting with the left-hand side, we expand the squared norm: \[ \Vert x + y \Vert^2 = \langle x + y, x + y \rangle \]

Using the bilinearity (distributive property) of the inner product: \[ \langle x + y, x + y \rangle = \langle x, x \rangle + \langle x, y \rangle + \langle y, x \rangle + \langle y, y \rangle \]

Since the inner product over a real vector space is symmetric, \(\langle x, y \rangle = \langle y, x \rangle\): \[ = \langle x, x \rangle + 2\langle x, y \rangle + \langle y, y \rangle \]

Because \(x\) and \(y\) are given as orthogonal, their inner product is zero (\(\langle x, y \rangle = 0\)). Substituting this into the equation: \[ = \langle x, x \rangle + 2(0) + \langle y, y \rangle \]

\[ = \langle x, x \rangle + \langle y, y \rangle \]

Finally, applying the definition of the norm (\(\langle x, x \rangle = \Vert x \Vert^2\) and \(\langle y, y \rangle = \Vert y \Vert^2\)): \[ = \Vert x \Vert^2 + \Vert y \Vert^2 \]

Therefore, \(\Vert x + y \Vert^2 = \Vert x \Vert^2 + \Vert y \Vert^2\). ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

Start from the identity \(|x+y|^2=\langle x+y,x+y\rangle\). Distribute both arguments: the four terms are \(\langle x,x\rangle\), \(\langle x,y\rangle\), \(\langle y,x\rangle\), and \(\langle y,y\rangle\). In real Euclidean space the middle terms both equal zero because orthogonality means \(\langle x,y\rangle=0\). The remaining terms are \(|x|^2+|y|^2\).

This is the Pythagorean theorem in \(\mathbb R^n\); no drawing or assumption about a particular dimension is needed.

Hinglish mein poora explanation

\(|x+y|^2\) ko \(\langle x+y,x+y\rangle\) likho aur dono slots distribute karo. Chaar terms milengi. Middle do terms \(\langle x,y\rangle\) aur \(\langle y,x\rangle\) hain; perpendicular hone par dono zero. Bachi hui terms \(|x|^2\) aur \(|y|^2\) hain.

Yeh Pythagoras ka \(\mathbb R^n\) version hai; 2D diagram zaroori nahi.

Problem 3 (Spivak 1-21)
Question

(a) If \(A\) is closed and \(x \notin A\), prove that there is a number \(d > 0\) such that \(\vert y - x \vert \ge d\) for all \(y \in A\).
(b) If \(A\) is closed, \(B\) is compact, and \(A \cap B = \emptyset\), prove that there is \(d > 0\) such that \(\vert y - x \vert \ge d\) for all \(y \in A\) and \(x \in B\). Hint: For each \(b \in B\) find an open set \(U\) containing \(b\) such that this relation holds for \(x \in U \cap B\).
(c) Give a counterexample in \(\mathbf{R}^2\) if \(A\) and \(B\) are closed but neither is compact.

(a) Proof

\(A\) is closed \(\implies\) Its complement \(\mathbf{R}^n \setminus A\) is an open set.

\(x \notin A \implies x \in \mathbf{R}^n \setminus A\).

By the definition of an open set, there exists a radius \(d > 0\) such that the open ball centered at \(x\) is entirely contained in the complement: \[ B(x, d) = \{z \in \mathbf{R}^n : \vert z - x \vert < d\} \subset \mathbf{R}^n \setminus A \]

This implies \(B(x, d) \cap A = \emptyset\).

Therefore, no point \(y \in A\) lies inside \(B(x, d)\): \[ \vert y - x \vert \ge d \quad \forall y \in A \] ∎

(b) Proof

Let \(b \in B\). Since \(A \cap B = \emptyset \implies b \notin A\).

By Part (a), \(\exists d_b > 0\) such that: \[ \vert y - b \vert \ge d_b \quad \forall y \in A \]

Define an open ball around each \(b \in B\) with radius \(\frac{d_b}{2}\): \(U_b = B\left(b, \frac{d_b}{2}\right)\).

For any \(x \in U_b\), applying the triangle inequality for any \(y \in A\): \[ \vert y - b \vert \le \vert y - x \vert + \vert x - b \vert \implies \vert y - x \vert \ge \vert y - b \vert - \vert x - b \vert \]

Since \(\vert y - b \vert \ge d_b\) and \(\vert x - b \vert < \frac{d_b}{2}\): \[ \vert y - x \vert > d_b - \frac{d_b}{2} = \frac{d_b}{2} \]

The collection of open balls \(\{U_b\}_{b \in B}\) forms an open cover for \(B\).

Since \(B\) is compact, this open cover has a finite subcover. Thus, there exist \(b_1, b_2, \dots, b_k\) such that: \[ B \subset U_{b_1} \cup U_{b_2} \cup \dots \cup U_{b_k} \]

Let \(d\) be the minimum of these finite radii: \[ d = \min\left(\frac{d_{b_1}}{2}, \frac{d_{b_2}}{2}, \dots, \frac{d_{b_k}}{2}\right) \]

Since the set is finite and all terms are positive, \(d > 0\).

For any \(x \in B\), \(x \in U_{b_i}\) for some \(i \in \{1, 2, \dots, k\}\).
Therefore, \(\forall y \in A\) and \(\forall x \in B\): \[ \vert y - x \vert > \frac{d_{b_i}}{2} \ge d \]

Thus, \(\vert y - x \vert \ge d\). ∎

(c) Counterexample

Define two sets in \(\mathbf{R}^2\): \[ A = \{(x, y) \in \mathbf{R}^2 : y = 0\} \quad \text{(X-axis)} \] \[ B = \left\{(x, y) \in \mathbf{R}^2 : y = \frac{1}{x}, \ x \ge 1\right\} \quad \text{(Branch of a hyperbola)} \]

Verification:
Closed: Both \(A\) and \(B\) contain their boundaries/limit points, hence both are closed sets.
Not Compact: Both sets extend to infinity (\(x \to \infty\)). Since they are unbounded, neither is compact.
Disjoint (\(A \cap B = \emptyset\)): For any point in \(B\), \(y = \frac{1}{x} > 0\) (since \(x \ge 1\)). For any point in \(A\), \(y = 0\). Thus, they never intersect.

No such \(d > 0\) exists:
Consider sequences of points in \(A\) and \(B\):
\(p_n = (n, 0) \in A\) and \(q_n = \left(n, \frac{1}{n}\right) \in B\).
The distance between these points is: \[ d_n = \sqrt{(n - n)^2 + \left(\frac{1}{n} - 0\right)^2} = \frac{1}{n} \]

As \(n \to \infty\), \(d_n \to 0\).
Therefore, the distance between the two closed disjoint sets approaches \(0\), and no minimum distance \(d > 0\) exists.

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

  1. (a) A closed \(A\) has open complement. Since \(x\) is in that complement, some ball \(B(x,d)\) misses \(A\). Therefore every \(y\in A\) satisfies \(|y-x|\ge d\).
  2. (b) Repeat (a) at every \(b\in B\), obtaining \(d_b\). If \(x\in B(b,d_b/2)\), the reverse triangle inequality gives \(|y-x|\ge d_b-|x-b|>d_b/2\). Compactness gives finitely many such balls covering \(B\); the minimum of their finitely many positive half-radii is a uniform \(d>0\).
  3. (c) For example, \(A=\{(t,0):t\in\mathbb R\}\) and \(B=\{(t,e^t):t\in\mathbb R\}\) are disjoint closed unbounded sets, yet the distance between \((t,0)\) and \((t,e^t)\) tends to zero as \(t\to-\infty\).

Hinglish mein poora explanation

  1. (a) Closed \(A\) ka complement open hai. \(x\) complement mein hai, to uske around radius \(d\) ka ball \(A\) ko touch nahi karta. Har \(y\in A\) ki distance kam se kam \(d\).
  2. (b) Har \(b\in B\) par alag radius \(d_b\) milta hai. Uske half-radius ball ke kisi bhi \(x\) ke liye triangle inequality se \(|y-x|>d_b/2\). Compact \(B\) ko finitely many aise balls cover karte hain; finite positive radii ka minimum common \(d\) deta hai.
  3. (c) x-axis aur curve \(y=e^x\) dono closed, unbounded aur disjoint hain. \(x\to-\infty\) par vertical gap \(e^x\to0\). Isliye compactness hataane par uniform positive gap fail ho sakta hai.
Problem 4 (Spivak 1-22)
Question

If \(U\) is open and \(C \subset U\) is compact, show that there is a compact set \(D\) such that \(C \subset \text{interior } D\) and \(D \subset U\).

Proof

Since \(U\) is an open set and \(C \subset U\), for every \(x \in C\), there exists a radius \(r_x > 0\) such that: \[ B(x, r_x) \subset U \]

Consider the open ball with half the radius, \(B\left(x, \frac{r_x}{2}\right)\). In \(\mathbf{R}^n\), its closure \(\overline{B\left(x, \frac{r_x}{2}\right)}\) is closed and bounded, making it compact (Heine-Borel Theorem).

This closed ball strictly remains inside \(U\): \[ \overline{B\left(x, \frac{r_x}{2}\right)} \subset B(x, r_x) \subset U \]

The collection of these smaller open balls forms an open cover for \(C\): \[ C \subset \bigcup_{x \in C} B\left(x, \frac{r_x}{2}\right) \]

Since \(C\) is compact, this open cover has a finite subcover. Thus, there exist finitely many points \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_k \in C\) such that: \[ C \subset \bigcup_{i=1}^k B\left(x_i, \frac{r_{x_i}}{2}\right) \]

Define the set \(D\) as the union of the corresponding closed balls: \[ D = \bigcup_{i=1}^k \overline{B\left(x_i, \frac{r_{x_i}}{2}\right)} \]

Verification of \(D\):
\(D\) is compact: \(D\) is a finite union of compact sets, hence compact.
\(D \subset U\): Since each individual closed ball \(\overline{B\left(x_i, \frac{r_{x_i}}{2}\right)} \subset U\), their union is also contained within \(U\).
\(C \subset \text{interior}(D)\): The interior of a set contains any open sets within it. Thus: \[ \text{interior}(D) = \text{interior}\left( \bigcup_{i=1}^k \overline{B\left(x_i, \frac{r_{x_i}}{2}\right)} \right) \supset \bigcup_{i=1}^k B\left(x_i, \frac{r_{x_i}}{2}\right) \]

From the subcover defined earlier, this union of open balls contains \(C\). Therefore: \[ C \subset \text{interior}(D) \]

Thus, all conditions are satisfied: \(C \subset \text{interior}(D) \subset D \subset U\). ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

For each \(c\in C\), openness of \(U\) supplies \(B(c,r_c)\subset U\). Use the smaller closed ball \(\overline B(c,r_c/2)\subset B(c,r_c)\); the half radius is what keeps its boundary safely inside \(U\). The smaller open balls cover compact \(C\), so choose finitely many. Their closed balls have compact finite union \(D\subset U\), while their open interiors cover \(C\). Thus \(C\subset\operatorname{int}D\).

Hinglish mein poora explanation

Har \(c\in C\) par \(U\) open hone se \(B(c,r_c)\subset U\) milta hai. Half radius ka closed ball lo, taaki uski boundary bhi bade ball ke andar rahe. Chhote open balls \(C\) ko cover karte hain; compactness se finite subcover lo. Unke closed balls ka finite union \(D\) compact aur \(U\) ke andar hai. Open chhote balls \(D\) ke interior mein hain aur \(C\) ko cover karte hain.

Problem 5 (Spivak 1-23)
Question

If \(f: A \rightarrow \mathbf{R}^m\) and \(a \in A\), show that \(\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = b\) if and only if \(\lim_{x \to a} f^i(x) = b^i\) for \(i = 1, \dots, m\).

Proof

Let \(f(x) = (f^1(x), f^2(x), \dots, f^m(x))\) and \(b = (b^1, b^2, \dots, b^m)\).

Recall the standard inequalities relating a vector's norm to its components: \[ \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert \le \vert f(x) - b \vert \quad \forall i \in \{1, \dots, m\} \] \[ \vert f(x) - b \vert \le \sum_{i=1}^m \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert \]

Part 1: Assume \(\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = b \implies \lim_{x \to a} f^i(x) = b^i \quad \forall i\)

Assume \(\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = b\).
By definition, for any \(\epsilon > 0\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) such that: \[ 0 < \vert x - a \vert < \delta \implies \vert f(x) - b \vert < \epsilon \]

Using the first inequality for any component \(i\): \[ \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert \le \vert f(x) - b \vert \]

Substituting the limit condition: \[ \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert < \epsilon \quad \forall i \]

This satisfies the precise definition of a limit for each component. Therefore: \[ \lim_{x \to a} f^i(x) = b^i \quad \forall i \]


Part 2: Assume \(\lim_{x \to a} f^i(x) = b^i \quad \forall i \implies \lim_{x \to a} f(x) = b\)

Assume \(\lim_{x \to a} f^i(x) = b^i\) for all \(i = 1, \dots, m\).

Let \(\epsilon > 0\). By definition, for each component \(i\), \(\exists \delta_i > 0\) such that: \[ 0 < \vert x - a \vert < \delta_i \implies \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert < \frac{\epsilon}{m} \]

Choose \(\delta = \min(\delta_1, \delta_2, \dots, \delta_m)\). Since the set is finite, \(\delta > 0\).
For \(0 < \vert x - a \vert < \delta\), the condition holds simultaneously for all \(m\) components.

Applying the second inequality: \[ \vert f(x) - b \vert \le \sum_{i=1}^m \vert f^i(x) - b^i \vert \]

Substituting the component bounds: \[ \vert f(x) - b \vert < \sum_{i=1}^m \frac{\epsilon}{m} = m \left( \frac{\epsilon}{m} \right) = \epsilon \]

Thus, for any \(\epsilon > 0\), \(\exists \delta > 0\) such that \(0 < \vert x - a \vert < \delta \implies \vert f(x) - b \vert < \epsilon\). Therefore: \[ \lim_{x \to a} f(x) = b \] ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

If the vector limit holds, each coordinate difference is at most the vector norm, so each scalar limit follows. For the converse, fix \(\varepsilon>0\); for each of the finitely many coordinates choose \(\delta_i\) making its error \(<\varepsilon/m\). Set \(\delta=\min_i\delta_i>0\). Then \(|f(x)-b|\le\sum_i|f^i(x)-b^i|<\varepsilon\). The finite number of components is essential to choosing one common \(\delta\).

Hinglish mein poora explanation

Vector limit ho to har coordinate ka error vector norm se chhota hai; hence har coordinate limit milta hai. Ulti direction mein \(\varepsilon\) fix karo. Har \(i\) ke liye coordinate error \(\varepsilon/m\) se kam karne wala \(\delta_i\) lo. Finitely many \(\delta_i\) ka minimum positive hoga. Ab sab coordinate errors ka sum \(\varepsilon\) se kam, aur vector norm us sum se zyada nahi.

Problem 6 (Spivak 1-26)
Question

Let \(A = \{(x,y) \in \mathbf{R}^2: x > 0 \text{ and } 0 < y < x^2\}\).

(a) Show that every straight line through \((0,0)\) contains an interval around \((0,0)\) which is in \(\mathbf{R}^2 - A\).
(b) Define \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) by \(f(x) = 0\) if \(x \notin A\) and \(f(x) = 1\) if \(x \in A\). For \(h \in \mathbf{R}^2\) define \(g_h: \mathbf{R} \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) by \(g_h(t) = f(th)\). Show that each \(g_h\) is continuous at \(0\), but \(f\) is not continuous at \((0,0)\).

(a) Proof

Consider any straight line passing through the origin \((0,0)\).

Case 1: The vertical line (\(x = 0\))
Set \(A\) strictly requires \(x > 0\). Thus, no point on \(x = 0\) is in \(A\). The entire line is in \(\mathbf{R}^2 \setminus A\).

Case 2: Lines of the form \(y = mx\)
Subcase 2.1: \(m \le 0\)
For \(x > 0\), \(y = mx \le 0\). Since \(A\) requires \(y > 0\), the line never enters \(A\) for \(x > 0\). The entire line is in \(\mathbf{R}^2 \setminus A\).

Subcase 2.2: \(m > 0\)
A point \((x, mx)\) is in \(A\) if and only if: \[ 0 < mx < x^2 \]

Since \(x > 0\), dividing by \(x\) yields \(m < x\). This means the line only enters set \(A\) when \(x > m\). Therefore, for the interval \(x \in [-m, m]\), the points \((x, mx) \notin A\). This forms an interval around the origin that lies entirely in \(\mathbf{R}^2 \setminus A\). ∎

(b) Proof

Step 1: \(g_h\) is continuous at \(t=0\)

From part (a), for any direction \(h\), the line \(th\) contains an interval \(t \in (-\delta, \delta)\) around \(0\) that lies entirely in \(\mathbf{R}^2 \setminus A\).

For all \(t \in (-\delta, \delta)\), \(th \notin A\), meaning: \[ g_h(t) = f(th) = 0 \]

Since \(g_h(t)\) is identically \(0\) in a neighborhood of \(t=0\), \(\lim_{t \to 0} g_h(t) = 0 = g_h(0)\). Thus, \(g_h\) is continuous at \(t=0\).


Step 2: \(f\) is not continuous at \((0,0)\)

Since \((0,0)\) fails the condition \(x > 0\), \((0,0) \notin A\). Therefore, \(f(0,0) = 0\).

Consider the approach to the origin along the path \(y = \frac{x^2}{2}\) for \(x > 0\). For points on this path: \[ 0 < \frac{x^2}{2} < x^2 \]

These points strictly satisfy the conditions of \(A\), meaning they lie inside \(A\). Thus, \(f\left(x, \frac{x^2}{2}\right) = 1\).

Evaluating the limit as \((x,y) \to (0,0)\) along this path: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^+} f\left(x, \frac{x^2}{2}\right) = \lim_{x \to 0^+} 1 = 1 \]

Since the limit along this path (\(1\)) does not equal the function's value at the origin (\(0\)), \(f\) is not continuous at \((0,0)\). ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

The set \(A\) is a thin region between the x-axis and the parabola \(y=x^2\) for \(x>0\). On a fixed nonvertical line \(y=mx\), membership would require \(0

But the curved path \((x,x^2/2)\) lies in \(A\) for every \(x>0\) and tends to \((0,0)\). Along it \(f=1\), while \(f(0,0)=0\), so full continuity fails. The radius of the zero interval depends on the line; there is no uniform ball.

Hinglish mein poora explanation

\(A\), positive x-axis aur parabola \(y=x^2\) ke beech ka patla region hai. Fixed line \(y=mx\) ko \(A\) mein aane ke liye \(0

Lekin curved path \((x,x^2/2)\), \(x>0\), hamesha \(A\) mein hai aur origin tak aata hai. Is path par \(f=1\), origin par \(f=0\). Isliye line-wise continuity, full continuity nahi banati; har line ka safe interval alag size ka hai.

Problem 7 (Spivak 2-4)
Question

Let \(g\) be a continuous real-valued function on the unit circle \(\{x \in \mathbf{R}^2: \vert x \vert = 1\}\) such that \(g(0,1) = g(1,0) = 0\) and \(g(-x) = -g(x)\). Define \(f: \mathbf{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) by

\[ f(x) = \begin{cases} \vert x \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) & x \neq 0, \\ 0 & x = 0. \end{cases} \]

(a) If \(x \in \mathbf{R}^2\) and \(h: \mathbf{R} \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) is defined by \(h(t) = f(tx)\), show that \(h\) is differentiable.
(b) Show that \(f\) is not differentiable at \((0,0)\) unless \(g = 0\). Hint: First show that \(Df(0,0)\) would have to be \(0\) by considering \((h,k)\) with \(k = 0\) and then with \(h = 0\).

(a) Proof

Let \(x \in \mathbf{R}^2\) be a fixed vector.

Case 1: \(x = 0\)
\(h(t) = f(0) = 0\). This is a constant function, thus differentiable (\(h'(t) = 0\)).

Case 2: \(x \neq 0\)
Evaluate \(h(t)\) for different signs of \(t\):

For \(t > 0\): \(\vert tx \vert = t\vert x \vert\) \[ h(t) = f(tx) = \vert tx \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{tx}{\vert tx \vert}\right) = t\vert x \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) = t \cdot f(x) \]

For \(t < 0\): \(\vert tx \vert = -t\vert x \vert\) \[ h(t) = f(tx) = -t\vert x \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{tx}{-t\vert x \vert}\right) = -t\vert x \vert \cdot g\left(-\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) \]

Since \(g\) is an odd function (\(g(-y) = -g(y)\)): \[ h(t) = -t\vert x \vert \cdot \left(-g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right)\right) = t\vert x \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) = t \cdot f(x) \]

For \(t = 0\): \(h(0) = f(0) = 0 = 0 \cdot f(x)\).

Therefore, for all \(t \in \mathbf{R}\): \[ h(t) = t \cdot f(x) \]

Since \(f(x)\) is a constant real number for a fixed \(x\), \(h(t)\) is a linear function of \(t\). Linear functions are differentiable everywhere. \[ h'(t) = f(x) \] ∎

(b) Proof

Assume \(f\) is differentiable at \((0,0)\). Let \(L = Df(0,0)\) be its derivative (a linear transformation).

Compute \(Df(0,0)\) via partial derivatives
Using the result from (a), \(f(tx) = t \cdot f(x)\):
Partial derivative with respect to \(x_1\): \[ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(0,0) = f(1,0) = \vert (1,0) \vert \cdot g(1,0) = 1 \cdot 0 = 0 \]
Partial derivative with respect to \(x_2\): \[ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_2}(0,0) = f(0,1) = \vert (0,1) \vert \cdot g(0,1) = 1 \cdot 0 = 0 \]
Therefore, the Jacobian matrix is zero: \(L(x) = 0\).

Apply the definition of differentiability
For \(f\) to be differentiable at \((0,0)\) with \(L = 0\): \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\vert f(x) - f(0) - L(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} = 0 \]

Substitute \(f(x)\) and \(L(x) = 0\): \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\left\vert \vert x \vert \cdot g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) \right\vert}{\vert x \vert} = 0 \]

\[ \lim_{x \to 0} \left\vert g\left(\frac{x}{\vert x \vert}\right) \right\vert = 0 \]

Evaluate the limit along a specific path
Let \(x \to 0\) along a ray defined by \(x = tu\), where \(u\) is a unit vector (\(\vert u \vert=1\)) and \(t \to 0^+\). \[ \frac{x}{\vert x \vert} = \frac{tu}{t\vert u \vert} = u \]

Substitute this into the limit: \[ \lim_{t \to 0^+} \vert g(u) \vert = 0 \]

Since the expression is independent of \(t\): \[ \vert g(u) \vert = 0 \implies g(u) = 0 \]

For the limit to exist and equal \(0\), this must hold true for approaching from any direction \(u\). Therefore, \(g(u)\) must be \(0\) for all points on the unit circle.

If \(g \neq 0\) for any unit vector, the limit depends on the path, and \(f\) fails to be differentiable at \((0,0)\). ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

(a) Oddness of \(g\) handles negative \(t\): for every fixed \(v\), \(f(tv)=t f(v)\). Hence the one-variable restriction is exactly linear and differentiable.

(b) If \(f\) were differentiable at zero, its derivative \(L\) would satisfy \(L(e_1)=f(e_1)=g(1,0)=0\) and \(L(e_2)=0\). Linearity forces \(L=0\). But for any \(v\ne0\), positive homogeneity gives \(|f(tv)-L(tv)|/|tv|=|f(v)|/|v|\), independent of \(t>0\). Differentiability requires this to tend to zero, so \(f(v)=0\) for every \(v\), hence \(g=0\) on the unit circle.

Hinglish mein poora explanation

(a) \(g\) odd hai, isliye negative \(t\) par bhi \(f(tv)=t f(v)\). Fixed \(v\) ke liye yeh \(t\) ka linear function hai, hence differentiable.

(b) Origin par derivative \(L\) hota to coordinate axes par \(g(1,0)=g(0,1)=0\) ki wajah se \(L(e_1)=L(e_2)=0\), so \(L=0\). Kisi nonzero \(v\) par positive \(t\) ke liye differentiability quotient \(|f(v)|/|v|\) constant rahta hai. Limit zero tabhi hogi jab har \(v\) ke liye \(f(v)=0\), yani circle par \(g=0\).

Problem 8 (Spivak 2-7)
Question

Let \(f: \mathbf{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) be a function such that \(\vert f(x) \vert \le \vert x \vert^2\). Show that \(f\) is differentiable at \(0\).

Proof

Evaluate \(f(0)\)
Substitute \(x = 0\) into the given condition: \[ \vert f(0) \vert \le \vert 0 \vert^2 \implies \vert f(0) \vert \le 0 \]
Since the absolute value must be non-negative (\(\vert f(0) \vert \ge 0\)), it follows that \(f(0) = 0\).

Definition of differentiability
A function \(f\) is differentiable at \(a = 0\) if there exists a linear transformation \(L\) such that: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\vert f(x) - f(0) - L(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} = 0 \]

Propose the zero transformation as the derivative candidate: \(L(x) = 0\).

Evaluate the limit expression
Substitute \(f(0) = 0\) and \(L(x) = 0\) into the limit definition: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\vert f(x) - 0 - 0 \vert}{\vert x \vert} = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\vert f(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} \]

Apply the Squeeze Theorem
Using the given condition for \(x \neq 0\): \[ 0 \le \vert f(x) \vert \le \vert x \vert^2 \]

Divide the entire inequality by \(\vert x \vert\): \[ 0 \le \frac{\vert f(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} \le \frac{\vert x \vert^2}{\vert x \vert} \] \[ 0 \le \frac{\vert f(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} \le \vert x \vert \]

Take the limit as \(x \to 0\) for the bounding terms: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} 0 = 0 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to 0} \vert x \vert = 0 \]

Since both the lower and upper bounds approach \(0\), the Squeeze Theorem dictates: \[ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\vert f(x) \vert}{\vert x \vert} = 0 \]

Since the limit equals \(0\), the differentiability condition is perfectly satisfied by the linear map \(L(x) = 0\). Therefore, \(f\) is differentiable at \(x = 0\) and \(Df(0) = 0\). ∎

Detailed study guide · source English above

English explanation and missing steps

At \(x=0\), the bound gives \(|f(0)|\le0\), so \(f(0)=0\). The proposed derivative is the zero linear map. For \(x\ne0\), \(0\le |f(x)-f(0)-0|/|x|\le|x|\). The upper bound tends to zero, proving the exact differentiability limit. The quadratic bound is stronger than mere continuity: it makes the first-order error vanish.

Hinglish mein poora explanation

\(x=0\) rakhne se \(f(0)=0\). Derivative candidate zero linear map lo. \(x\ne0\) par error quotient \(|f(x)|/|x|\le |x|\), jo zero ko jata hai. Squeeze theorem se differentiability ki precise definition satisfy hoti hai. Quadratic bound first-order linear term ko zero force karta hai.