Question 1 โ Possible Values of Random Variables
A die is rolled twice. Find the possible values of: (a) the maximum of the two rolls, (b) the minimum of the two rolls, (c) their sum, and (d) the first roll minus the second roll.
English solution
Set-up
Write the two rolls as an ordered pair \((D_1,D_2)\), where each of \(D_1,D_2\) belongs to \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\). We only need the range of each random variable, not the probability of each value.
(a) Maximum of the two rolls
Let \(M=\max(D_1,D_2)\). The smallest possible maximum is \(1\), obtained from \((1,1)\), and the largest is \(6\). Every integer in between occurs, for example from \((k,k)\). Hence
\[M\in\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}.\]
(b) Minimum of the two rolls
Let \(m=\min(D_1,D_2)\). Its smallest possible value is \(1\), its largest possible value is \(6\), and every intermediate value can occur. Therefore
\[m\in\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}.\]
(c) Sum of the two rolls
Let \(S=D_1+D_2\). The smallest sum is \(1+1=2\), and the largest is \(6+6=12\). Every integer between them is possible:
\[S\in\{2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12\}.\]
(d) First roll minus second roll
Let \(R=D_1-D_2\). The minimum is \(1-6=-5\), while the maximum is \(6-1=5\). Every integer between these extremes is attainable, so
\[R\in\{-5,-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4,5\}.\]
Final answers
- (a) \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\)
- (b) \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\)
- (c) \(\{2,3,\ldots,12\}\)
- (d) \(\{-5,-4,\ldots,5\}\)
Hinglish explanation
Basic idea
Do rolls ko \((D_1,D_2)\) likho. Dono ki value 1 se 6 tak ho sakti hai. Yahan probability nahi nikalni; bas dekhna hai ki har random variable kaun-kaun si values le sakta hai.
(a) Maximum
Dono numbers mein jo bada hai, wahi maximum hai. Sabse chhota maximum 1 hai, jab result \((1,1)\) ho. Sabse bada maximum 6 hai. Beech ki har value possible hai, isliye range \(\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\) hai.
(b) Minimum
Dono numbers mein jo chhota hai, wahi minimum hai. Iski value bhi 1 se 6 tak kuch bhi ho sakti hai. Dhyan do: minimum 6 tab possible hai jab dono rolls \((6,6)\) hon.
(c) Sum
Sabse chhota sum \(1+1=2\), aur sabse bada \(6+6=12\). 2 aur 12 ke beech ka har integer possible hai. Isliye values \(2,3,\ldots,12\) hain.
(d) First minus second
Sabse negative answer tab aayega jab first roll sabse chhota aur second sabse bada ho: \(1-6=-5\). Sabse positive answer \(6-1=5\) hai. Equal rolls par difference 0 bhi aata hai. Isliye range \(-5\) se \(5\) tak saare integers hain.
Quick check
Maximum aur minimum ki 6-6 possible values hain. Sum ki 11 possible values \((2\text{ to }12)\) hain. Difference ki bhi 11 possible values \((-5\text{ to }5)\) hain.
Question 2 โ PMF from a Distribution Function
The distribution function of \(X\) is
\[ F_X(x)= \begin{cases} 0, & x<0,\\ \frac12, & 0\le x<1,\\ \frac23, & 1\le x<2,\\ \frac45, & 2\le x<3,\\ \frac9{10}, & 3\le x<3.5,\\ 1, & x\ge3.5. \end{cases} \]
Calculate the probability mass function of \(X\).
English solution
Main idea: probability equals jump size
For a discrete random variable, the CDF is \(F_X(x)=P(X\le x)\). The mass at a point \(a\) equals the jump of the CDF at \(a\):
\[p_X(a)=P(X=a)=F_X(a)-F_X(a^-),\]
where \(F_X(a^-)=\lim_{x\uparrow a}F_X(x)\). The given CDF jumps at \(0,1,2,3\), and \(3.5\).
Compute each jump
- At \(x=0\):
\[P(X=0)=\frac12-0=\frac12.\]
- At \(x=1\):
\[P(X=1)=\frac23-\frac12=\frac16.\]
- At \(x=2\):
\[P(X=2)=\frac45-\frac23=\frac{12-10}{15}=\frac2{15}.\]
- At \(x=3\):
\[P(X=3)=\frac9{10}-\frac45=\frac1{10}.\]
- At \(x=3.5\):
\[P(X=3.5)=1-\frac9{10}=\frac1{10}.\]
Probability mass function
\[ p_X(x)=P(X=x)= \begin{cases} \frac12, & x=0,\\ \frac16, & x=1,\\ \frac2{15}, & x=2,\\ \frac1{10}, & x=3,\\ \frac1{10}, & x=3.5,\\ 0, & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases} \]
Verification
Every mass is non-negative, and
\[\frac12+\frac16+\frac2{15}+\frac1{10}+\frac1{10}=\frac{15+5+4+3+3}{30}=1.\]
Therefore this is a valid PMF.
Hinglish explanation
CDF aur PMF ka relation
CDF \(F_X(x)=P(X\le x)\) batata hai ki \(x\) tak total probability kitni collect ho chuki hai. Step CDF jahan jump karta hai, wahi \(X\) ki possible value hoti hai. Jump ki height hi us point ki probability hoti hai.
Formula: \(P(X=a)=F_X(a)-F_X(a^-)\). Yani point ke turant baad wali cumulative probability mein se point ke turant pehle wali cumulative probability subtract karo.
Jumps step by step
0 par CDF 0 se \(1/2\) hota hai, isliye \(P(X=0)=1/2\). 1 par \(1/2\) se \(2/3\), to mass \(1/6\). 2 par \(2/3\) se \(4/5\), to \(2/15\). 3 par jump \(1/10\), aur 3.5 par bhi jump \(1/10\) hai.
Final PMF
Possible values sirf \(0,1,2,3,3.5\) hain. Inki probabilities respectively \(1/2,1/6,2/15,1/10,1/10\) hain; kisi aur value ki probability 0 hai.
Answer check
PMF ka total hamesha 1 hona chahiye. Yahan sab probabilities ko add karne par exactly 1 milta hai, isliye answer correct hai.
Question 3 โ Continuous Density, Probability, Mean and Variance
Let
\[ f_X(x)= \begin{cases} c(4x-2x^2), & 0<x<2,\\ 0, & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases} \]
Find (a) \(c\), (b) \(P(\frac12<X<\frac32)\), and (c) \(E[X]\) and \(\operatorname{Var}(X)\).
English solution
(a) Find the normalizing constant \(c\)
A probability density must integrate to 1:
\[ 1=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_X(x)\,dx =c\int_0^2(4x-2x^2)\,dx. \]
Now
\[ \int_0^2(4x-2x^2)\,dx =\left[2x^2-\frac23x^3\right]_0^2 =8-\frac{16}{3}=\frac83. \]
Thus \(c\cdot\frac83=1\), so
\[\boxed{c=\frac38}.\]
(b) Find \(P(\frac12<X<\frac32)\)
For a continuous random variable, interval probability is the area under the density:
\[ P\left(\frac12<X<\frac32\right) =\frac38\int_{1/2}^{3/2}(4x-2x^2)\,dx. \]
An antiderivative after multiplying by \(3/8\) is
\[\frac34x^2-\frac14x^3.\]
Therefore
\[ P\left(\frac12<X<\frac32\right) =\left[\frac34x^2-\frac14x^3\right]_{1/2}^{3/2} =\frac{27}{32}-\frac5{32} =\boxed{\frac{11}{16}}. \]
(c) Find \(E[X]\)
\[ E[X]=\int_0^2x f_X(x)\,dx =\frac38\int_0^2(4x^2-2x^3)\,dx. \]
\[ E[X]=\frac38\left[\frac43x^3-\frac12x^4\right]_0^2 =\frac38\left(\frac{32}{3}-8\right) =\boxed{1}. \]
Find \(E[X^2]\) and the variance
\[ E[X^2]=\frac38\int_0^2(4x^3-2x^4)\,dx =\frac38\left[x^4-\frac25x^5\right]_0^2 =\frac38\left(16-\frac{64}{5}\right) =\frac65. \]
Using \(\operatorname{Var}(X)=E[X^2]-(E[X])^2\),
\[ \operatorname{Var}(X)=\frac65-1^2=\boxed{\frac15}. \]
Symmetry check
The density satisfies \(f_X(1-u)=f_X(1+u)\), so it is symmetric about \(x=1\). Hence \(E[X]=1\) is consistent with the shape of the density.
Final answers
\[c=\frac38,\qquad P\left(\frac12<X<\frac32\right)=\frac{11}{16},\qquad E[X]=1,\qquad \operatorname{Var}(X)=\frac15.\]
Hinglish explanation
(a) \(c\) kaise milega?
PDF ke neeche total area 1 hona chahiye. Isliye \(c\int_0^2(4x-2x^2)dx=1\). Integral \(8/3\) aata hai, to \(c(8/3)=1\), hence \(c=3/8\).
(b) Interval probability
Continuous variable mein \(a<X<b\) ki probability, \(a\) se \(b\) tak density ka integral hota hai. Limits \(1/2\) aur \(3/2\) lagane par answer \(11/16\) milta hai. Continuous case mein strict \(<\) ya inclusive \(\le\) se answer change nahi hota, kyunki single point ki probability 0 hoti hai.
(c) Mean aur variance
Mean ke liye formula \(E[X]=\int x f_X(x)dx\) use karo; answer 1 aata hai. Variance directly \(\int(x-\mu)^2f(x)dx\) se nikal sakte hain, lekin easy formula \(\operatorname{Var}(X)=E[X^2]-(E[X])^2\) hai. Yahan \(E[X^2]=6/5\), so variance \(6/5-1=1/5\).
Quick intuition
Density 1 ke around symmetric hai, isliye mean 1 aana natural hai. Agar calculation mein mean 1 se bahut alag aaye, to integration dobara check karna chahiye.
Question 4 โ Means and Variances of Standard Distributions
Find the mean and variance when (a) \(X\sim\operatorname{Geo}(p)\), (b) \(X\sim\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\), (c) \(X\sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)\), and (d) \(X\sim\operatorname{Exp}(\lambda)\).
English solution
(a) Geometric distribution
We use the common convention that \(X\) is the trial number of the first success:
\[P(X=k)=p(1-p)^{k-1},\qquad k=1,2,\ldots\]
Let \(q=1-p\). Its probability generating function is
\[ G_X(s)=E[s^X]=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}s^k p q^{k-1} =\frac{ps}{1-qs}. \]
Since \(E[X]=G_X'(1)\) and \(E[X(X-1)]=G_X''(1)\),
\[E[X]=\frac1p,\qquad \operatorname{Var}(X)=\frac{1-p}{p^2}.\]
Convention note: If \(X\) counts failures before the first success, so its support is \(0,1,2,\ldots\), then \(E[X]=(1-p)/p\); the variance remains \((1-p)/p^2\).
(b) Poisson distribution
For \(X\sim\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\),
\[P(X=k)=e^{-\lambda}\frac{\lambda^k}{k!},\qquad k=0,1,2,\ldots\]
The MGF is \(M_X(t)=\exp(\{\lambda(e^t-1)\})\). Differentiating at \(t=0\) gives
\[E[X]=\lambda,\qquad \operatorname{Var}(X)=\lambda.\]
(c) Normal distribution
The notation \(X\sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)\) already identifies its location and spread:
\[E[X]=\mu,\qquad \operatorname{Var}(X)=\sigma^2.\]
(d) Exponential distribution
Using the rate parameterization,
\[f_X(x)=\lambda e^{-\lambda x},\qquad x\ge0,\quad \lambda>0.\]
Direct integration, or differentiation of \(M_X(t)=\lambda/(\lambda-t)\), gives
\[E[X]=\frac1\lambda,\qquad \operatorname{Var}(X)=\frac1{\lambda^2}.\]
Final summary
| Distribution | Mean | Variance |
|---|---|---|
| \(\operatorname{Geo}(p)\), support \(1,2,\ldots\) | \(1/p\) | \((1-p)/p^2\) |
| \(\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\) | \(\lambda\) | \(\lambda\) |
| \(N(\mu,\sigma^2)\) | \(\mu\) | \(\sigma^2\) |
| \(\operatorname{Exp}(\lambda)\), rate \(\lambda\) | \(1/\lambda\) | \(1/\lambda^2\) |
Hinglish explanation
Geometric
Agar \(X\) first success aane tak total trials count karta hai, to support 1 se start hota hai aur mean \(1/p\) hota hai. Variance \((1-p)/p^2\) hai. Lekin kuch books failures count karti hain, jahan support 0 se start hota hai; tab mean \((1-p)/p\) hoga. Exam mein convention zaroor mention karo.
Poisson
Poisson ki special property hai ki iska mean aur variance dono \(\lambda\) hote hain. Standard deviation \(\sqrt\lambda\) hoga.
Normal
Notation \(N(\mu,\sigma^2)\) mein pehla parameter directly mean hai aur doosra variance. Isliye mean \(\mu\), variance \(\sigma^2\). Dhyan rahe: \(\sigma\) standard deviation hai, variance nahi.
Exponential
Agar \(\lambda\) rate hai, to mean \(1/\lambda\) aur variance \(1/\lambda^2\). Rate badhega to average waiting time kam hoga, jo formula se bhi clear hai.
Memory trick
Poisson: mean = variance = \(\lambda\). Normal: parameters hi mean aur variance hain. Exponential: mean \(1/\lambda\), variance uska square \(1/\lambda^2\). Geometric: mean \(1/p\), variance mein extra failure probability \(1-p\) aati hai.
Question 5 โ MGFs and the Binomial-to-Poisson Limit
(a) Find \(M_{X_n}(t)\) and \(M_Y(t)\), where \(X_n\sim\operatorname{Bin}(n,p)\) and \(Y\sim\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\). (b) Show that if \(np\to\lambda\), then \(M_{X_n}(t)\to M_Y(t)\) as \(n\to\infty\).
English solution
Definition of an MGF
For a random variable \(Z\), its moment generating function is
\[M_Z(t)=E[e^{tZ}],\]
for those \(t\) where the expectation is finite.
(a) MGF of a Binomial random variable
For \(X_n\sim\operatorname{Bin}(n,p)\),
\[ \begin{aligned} M_{X_n}(t) &=\sum_{k=0}^{n}e^{tk}\binom nk p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\\ &=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom nk(pe^t)^k(1-p)^{n-k}\\ &=(1-p+pe^t)^n, \end{aligned} \]
by the binomial theorem. Equivalently, \(M_{X_n}(t)=[1+p(e^t-1)]^n\).
MGF of a Poisson random variable
For \(Y\sim\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\),
\[ \begin{aligned} M_Y(t) &=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}e^{tk}e^{-\lambda}\frac{\lambda^k}{k!}\\ &=e^{-\lambda}\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(\lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\\ &=e^{-\lambda}e^{\lambda e^t} =\exp\{\lambda(e^t-1)\}. \end{aligned} \]
(b) Limit of the Binomial MGF
Here \(p\) must depend on \(n\); write it as \(p_n\). The assumption is \(np_n\to\lambda\), which also implies \(p_n\to0\). Put \(a=e^t-1\). Then
\[M_{X_n}(t)=(1+p_na)^n.\]
Take logarithms:
\[ \log M_{X_n}(t)=n\log(1+p_na). \]
Since \(p_n\to0\), use \(\log(1+u)=u+O(u^2)\) as \(u\to0\):
\[ n\log(1+p_na)=np_na+O(np_n^2a^2). \]
Now \(np_n\to\lambda\), and
\[np_n^2=(np_n)p_n\to\lambda\cdot0=0.\]
Therefore
\[ \log M_{X_n}(t)\to\lambda a=\lambda(e^t-1). \]
Exponentiating both sides gives
\[ \boxed{M_{X_n}(t)\to\exp\{\lambda(e^t-1)\}=M_Y(t)}. \]
Hence, by the stated MGF convergence theorem,
\[X_n\xrightarrow{d}Y\sim\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda).\]
Special case \(p_n=\lambda/n\)
Then the limit is the familiar exponential limit:
\[ M_{X_n}(t)=\left(1+\frac{\lambda(e^t-1)}{n}\right)^n \longrightarrow e^{\lambda(e^t-1)}. \]
Hinglish explanation
MGF kya karta hai?
MGF ka definition \(M_X(t)=E[e^{tX}]\) hai. Ye distribution ko ek function mein encode karta hai. Isko differentiate karke moments, jaise mean aur second moment, nikale ja sakte hain.
Binomial MGF
Binomial PMF ko definition mein put karo. Sum mein \(e^{tk}p^k=(pe^t)^k\) combine ho jata hai. Phir pura sum binomial theorem ke exactly same form mein hota hai, isliye answer \((1-p+pe^t)^n\) hai.
Poisson MGF
Poisson PMF put karne par exponential series \(\sum z^k/k!=e^z\) milti hai. Isliye \(M_Y(t)=e^{\lambda(e^t-1)}\).
Convergence ka main idea
Condition \(np_n\to\lambda\) ka matlab: trials bahut zyada ho rahe hain, individual success probability chhoti ho rahi hai, lekin expected successes finite \(\lambda\) ke paas reh rahe hain. Isi ko rare-event setting kehte hain.
Binomial MGF \([1+p_n(e^t-1)]^n\) hai. Log lene se power \(n\) bahar aa jati hai. Approximation \(\log(1+u)\approx u\) use karke limit \(\lambda(e^t-1)\) milti hai. Wapas exponential lene par exactly Poisson MGF mil jata hai.
Important notation point
Yahan fixed \(p\) nahi ho sakta, warna \(np\) infinity jayega. Isliye properly \(p=p_n\) likhna chahiye. Assumption \(np_n\to\lambda\) automatically \(p_n\to0\) deta hai.
Final result
MGF limit Poisson MGF ke equal hai, therefore \(X_n\) distribution mein \(\operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)\) ko converge karta hai.
Question 6 โ Tail Integral Formula Using Indicators
For an event \(A\), define \(I_A=1\) when \(A\) occurs and \(I_A=0\) otherwise. Let \(X\ge0\), and let \(g\) be differentiable with \(g(0)=0\).
- Show that \(g(X)=\int_0^\infty I_{\{X>t\}}g'(t)\,dt\).
- Show that \(E[g(X)]=\int_0^\infty \overline F_X(t)g'(t)\,dt\), where \(\overline F_X(t)=1-F_X(t)=P(X>t)\).
English solution
Understand the indicator
Fix one outcome and suppose the realized value of \(X\) is \(x\ge0\). Then
\[ I_{\{X>t\}}= \begin{cases} 1, & 0\le t<x,\\ 0, & t\ge x. \end{cases} \]
Thus the indicator simply cuts the infinite integral off at \(t=x\).
(a) Pointwise identity
For the realized value \(X=x\),
\[ \begin{aligned} \int_0^\infty I_{\{X>t\}}g'(t)\,dt &=\int_0^x g'(t)\,dt\\ &=g(x)-g(0)\\ &=g(x), \end{aligned} \]
where the second equality follows from the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus and the last uses \(g(0)=0\). Since this holds for every outcome,
\[ \boxed{g(X)=\int_0^\infty I_{\{X>t\}}g'(t)\,dt}. \]
(b) Take expectations and interchange expectation and integral
Starting from part (a),
\[ E[g(X)] =E\left[\int_0^\infty I_{\{X>t\}}g'(t)\,dt\right]. \]
Using Tonelli's theorem when \(g'(t)\ge0\), or Fubini's theorem whenever the integrand is absolutely integrable, we may interchange expectation and integration:
\[ E[g(X)]=\int_0^\infty E[I_{\{X>t\}}]g'(t)\,dt. \]
The expectation of an indicator equals the probability of its event:
\[ E[I_{\{X>t\}}]=1\cdot P(X>t)+0\cdot P(X\le t)=P(X>t). \]
Since \(P(X>t)=1-F_X(t)=\overline F_X(t)\),
\[ \boxed{E[g(X)]=\int_0^\infty \overline F_X(t)g'(t)\,dt}. \]
Important notation
The ordinary CDF is \(F_X(t)=P(X\le t)\). The bar denotes the survival or tail function:
\[\overline F_X(t)=1-F_X(t)=P(X>t).\]
Useful consequences
Choosing \(g(x)=x\), so \(g'(t)=1\), gives the tail-sum formula
\[E[X]=\int_0^\infty P(X>t)\,dt.\]
Choosing \(g(x)=x^r\) for \(r>0\), so \(g'(t)=rt^{r-1}\), gives
\[E[X^r]=r\int_0^\infty t^{r-1}P(X>t)\,dt,\]
whenever the relevant expectation/integral exists.
Technical condition
The interchange is automatically justified by Tonelli when \(g'\ge0\), because the integrand is then non-negative. For a general differentiable \(g\), one assumes the absolute-integrability condition
\[\int_0^\infty P(X>t)|g'(t)|\,dt<\infty,\]
which allows Fubini's theorem to be applied.
Hinglish explanation
Indicator ka role
Maan lo ek outcome par \(X=x\) aaya. Jab \(t<x\), event \(X>t\) true hai, to indicator 1 hoga. Jab \(t\ge x\), event false hai, to indicator 0 hoga. Isliye indicator infinity wale integral ko effectively 0 se \(x\) tak rok deta hai.
(a) Identity ka proof
Indicator ki wajah se integral \(\int_0^\infty I_{\{X>t\}}g'(t)dt=\int_0^Xg'(t)dt\) ban jata hai. Fundamental Theorem of Calculus se ye \(g(X)-g(0)\) hai. Given \(g(0)=0\), answer exactly \(g(X)\) milta hai.
(b) Expectation ka proof
Dono sides ka expectation lo aur Fubini/Tonelli se expectation aur integral ka order exchange karo. Ab \(E[I_A]=P(A)\), isliye \(E[I_{\{X>t\}}]=P(X>t)\). Ye tail probability \(\overline F_X(t)=1-F_X(t)\) hai. Directly required formula mil jata hai.
Bar wale \(F\) ko confuse mat karna
\(F_X(t)=P(X\le t)\) ordinary CDF hai. \(\overline F_X(t)=P(X>t)\) survival function hai. Dono ka sum 1 hota hai.
Formula ka practical use
Agar \(g(x)=x\), to \(g'(t)=1\), aur formula \(E[X]=\int_0^\infty P(X>t)dt\) ban jata hai. Matlab non-negative random variable ka mean uske tail-probability curve ke neeche ka total area hai.
Technical note
Agar \(g'\ge0\), integrand non-negative hai aur Tonelli theorem safely use hota hai. Agar \(g'\) negative bhi ho sakta hai, to absolute integrability assume karni hoti hai; tab Fubini theorem valid hota hai.
Homework 3 โ Quick Revision
English recap
- Q1: max/min values are \(1\) to \(6\); sum is \(2\) to \(12\); difference is \(-5\) to \(5\).
- Q2: PMF values are the jump sizes of the CDF.
- Q3: normalize a density first; \(c=3/8\), middle-interval probability \(11/16\), mean \(1\), variance \(1/5\).
- Q4: memorize standard means and variances, but state the geometric/exponential convention.
- Q5: \(M_{\mathrm{Bin}}(t)=(1-p+pe^t)^n\), \(M_{\mathrm{Pois}}(t)=e^{\lambda(e^t-1)}\).
- Q6: an indicator converts \(\int_0^\infty\) into \(\int_0^X\), and its expectation is an event probability.
Hinglish recap
- Range ke liye smallest, largest aur beech ki attainability check karo.
- Step CDF ka har jump ek probability mass hota hai.
- PDF ka total area 1; variance ke liye \(E[X^2]-(E[X])^2\).
- Standard distributions ke formulas ke saath convention bhi yaad rakho.
- Rare-event limit: \(n\) large, \(p_n\) small, \(np_n\to\lambda\).
- Indicator ka expectation event ki probability hota hai.